a nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin the nurse should identify that the concurrent use of which of the following me
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. The nurse should identify that the concurrent use of which of the following medications increases the client's risk of bleeding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Acetaminophen (Choice C). Acetaminophen, especially in high doses, can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking Warfarin. It can potentiate the anticoagulant effect of Warfarin, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Vitamin K (Choice A) is actually used to reverse the effects of Warfarin in case of over-anticoagulation, so it does not increase the risk of bleeding. Calcium carbonate (Choice B) and Ranitidine (Choice D) do not significantly interact with Warfarin to increase the risk of bleeding.

2. A client with Atrial Fibrillation is prescribed Dabigatran to prevent Thrombosis. Which medication is prescribed concurrently to treat an adverse effect of Dabigatran?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Omeprazole or another proton pump inhibitor is commonly prescribed for clients taking dabigatran who experience abdominal pain and other gastrointestinal adverse effects associated with dabigatran use. Proton pump inhibitors help alleviate these symptoms by reducing gastric acid secretion, which can contribute to gastrointestinal discomfort. Vitamin K1 is not indicated for adverse effects of dabigatran. Protamine is used to reverse the anticoagulant effects of heparin, not dabigatran. Probenecid is not typically used to treat adverse effects of dabigatran.

3. A client in an acute care facility is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. When IV Nitroprusside is infused at high dosages, it can lead to thiocyanate toxicity, causing mental status changes such as delirium. It is crucial to monitor the thiocyanate levels to ensure they remain below 10 mg/dL during therapy to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because IV Nitroprusside is not commonly associated with intestinal ileus, neutropenia, or hyperthermia. Monitoring for delirium is crucial due to the risk of thiocyanate toxicity.

4. A client is being taught about a new prescription for Escitalopram to treat generalized anxiety disorder. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When discontinuing Escitalopram, the client should taper the medication slowly according to a prescribed dosing schedule to reduce the risk of withdrawal syndrome. Abruptly stopping the medication can lead to withdrawal symptoms, so it is important to follow the healthcare provider's instructions for gradual discontinuation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Escitalopram should not necessarily be taken with food, there is no direct correlation with blood sugar levels, and the medication should not be crushed before swallowing.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the healthcare provider monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the sensation of a full bladder, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for this complication is crucial to prevent bladder distention and related issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and irritating cough are not typically associated with opioid agonist administration for pain management.

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