Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Somatropin to stimulate growth. The client should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperglycemia.
• B. Bradycardia.
• C. Urinary frequency.
• D. Edema.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Somatropin is known to cause hyperglycemia as a common adverse effect. Therefore, the client should be instructed to monitor for elevated blood glucose levels closely while taking this medication to ensure early detection and management of hyperglycemia.

2. A client is receiving daily doses of Oprelvekin. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. Absolute neutrophil count
• C. Platelet count
• D. Total white blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Oprelvekin is a medication that stimulates platelet production. Therefore, monitoring the platelet count is essential to assess the effectiveness of this drug. The expected outcome for oprelvekin therapy is a platelet count greater than 50,000/mm^3. Changes in platelet count can indicate the response to the medication and help in adjusting the treatment plan accordingly. Monitoring hemoglobin, absolute neutrophil count, or total white blood cell count is not directly related to the mechanism of action of Oprelvekin and therefore would not provide accurate information on the drug's effectiveness.

3. What is one of the therapeutic uses of Valproate?

• A. Suppression of seizure activity
• B. Replacement of hypothyroidism to restore normal hormone balance
• C. Maintenance of blood glucose
• D. Lowering of blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Valproate, also known as Valproic acid, is commonly used in medicine for the suppression of seizure activity. It is an anticonvulsant medication that helps manage and prevent seizures in various conditions such as epilepsy. While it is not used for replacing hypothyroidism, maintaining blood glucose levels, or lowering blood pressure, its primary therapeutic use is in managing seizures.

4. A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood glucose 150 mg/dL
• B. Urine output 40 mL/hr
• C. Dyspnea
• D. Bilateral equal pupil size

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dyspnea. Dyspnea is a concerning finding in a client receiving Mannitol as it can be a manifestation of heart failure, which is an adverse effect of the medication. The nurse should promptly notify the provider, discontinue the Mannitol, and initiate appropriate interventions to address the dyspnea and monitor the client's condition closely. Choice A, Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL, is within normal limits and not directly related to Mannitol administration. Choice B, Urine output of 40 mL/hr, could indicate decreased renal perfusion, but it is not the most critical finding compared to dyspnea. Choice D, Bilateral equal pupil size, is a normal neurological finding and not directly related to Mannitol therapy.

5. A client with chronic myeloid leukemia is receiving hydroxyurea. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for neutropenia when receiving hydroxyurea. Neutropenia is a common adverse effect caused by bone marrow suppression. It is essential to assess the client's white blood cell count regularly to detect neutropenia early and prevent complications such as infections.

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