Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Somatropin to stimulate growth. The client should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperglycemia.
• B. Bradycardia.
• C. Urinary frequency.
• D. Edema.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Somatropin is known to cause hyperglycemia as a common adverse effect. Therefore, the client should be instructed to monitor for elevated blood glucose levels closely while taking this medication to ensure early detection and management of hyperglycemia.

2. A healthcare professional is caring for a hospitalized client who has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) greater than 1.5 times the expected reference range. Which of the following blood products should the healthcare professional prepare to transfuse?

• A. Whole blood
• B. Platelets
• C. Fresh frozen plasma
• D. Packed red blood cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma is the correct choice for a client with an elevated aPTT because it contains essential coagulation factors that can help correct coagulopathy and prevent bleeding. It is rich in clotting factors like fibrinogen, factors V and VIII, which are crucial in maintaining proper blood clotting function. Whole blood (Choice A) is not typically used to correct coagulopathy and is more suitable for situations requiring both volume and oxygen-carrying capacity. Platelets (Choice B) are indicated for thrombocytopenia, not for correcting coagulation factors. Packed red blood cells (Choice D) are used to increase oxygen-carrying capacity in cases of anemia, not for correcting coagulopathy.

3. A client is receiving IV Dopamine for the treatment of shock. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Decreased respiratory rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dopamine is a medication used in shock to increase cardiac output and improve renal perfusion. An increase in urine output indicates that the medication is effective as it shows improved renal perfusion and kidney function, which are essential for managing shock effectively. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as an increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, and decreased respiratory rate are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of IV Dopamine in treating shock.

4. A client has a prescription for a Nicotine transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch at the same time each day.
• B. Remove the patch at bedtime.
• C. Apply the patch to the same location daily.
• D. Place the patch over an area of the body with hair.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nicotine transdermal patch is to apply the patch at the same time each day. This helps maintain consistent blood levels of nicotine throughout the treatment period, which can aid in reducing cravings for smoking. Consistency in the application time is essential for the effectiveness of the patch. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Removing the patch at bedtime may disrupt the continuous delivery of nicotine, applying the patch to the same location daily can cause skin irritation, and placing the patch over an area with hair may affect its adhesion and absorption.

5. What is the antidote for Warfarin?

• A. Vitamin D
• B. Vitamin C
• C. Vitamin K
• D. Vitamin B6

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vitamin K is the antidote for Warfarin toxicity as it helps reverse the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, and administering vitamin K can replenish these factors, thereby counteracting the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin. Vitamin D, Vitamin C, and Vitamin B6 do not have the specific mechanism to counteract the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin, making them incorrect choices.

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