a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of celiac disease which of the following client statements indicates an understandin
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A client with a new diagnosis of celiac disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because clients with celiac disease should avoid gluten, which is found in foods like rye and barley. Choice A is incorrect because oatmeal may contain gluten unless specified gluten-free. Choice C is incorrect as rye contains gluten. Choice D is incorrect as barley contains gluten.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral nutrition through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to check the placement of the nasogastric tube every 8 hours. This is crucial to ensure that the tube is correctly positioned in the stomach, reducing the risk of complications such as aspiration. Administering the feeding using a large-bore syringe (Choice A) is not recommended for enteral nutrition. Flushing the tube with water every 6 hours (Choice C) is not necessary for continuous enteral nutrition. Maintaining the client in an upright position (Choice D) is generally preferred to reduce the risk of aspiration, but it is not the most critical action compared to verifying tube placement.

3. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient with a history of hypertension who is non-compliant with medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging compliance through education is crucial in helping patients understand the importance of consistent medication use. By providing education, the patient can make informed decisions about their health and better manage their condition. Contacting the healthcare provider (choice B) may be necessary in some cases, but the initial approach should focus on patient education. Documenting the refusal (choice C) is important for legal and medical records but does not address the root cause of non-compliance. Exploring alternative treatment options (choice D) should come after efforts to educate and encourage compliance with the current medication regimen.

4. What is the most important assessment for a patient with respiratory distress?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial in assessing a patient with respiratory distress because it helps determine if the patient is receiving adequate oxygen. Oxygen saturation levels provide immediate feedback on the efficiency of oxygen delivery to the tissues. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (Choice B) is relevant in respiratory assessments, but it is secondary to assessing oxygen saturation. Pitting edema (Choice C) and performing a neurological exam (Choice D) are not directly related to assessing respiratory distress and are not the primary focus when managing a patient with breathing difficulties.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Urinary retention is an adverse effect of morphine, as it can lead to the relaxation of the detrusor muscle and sphincter constriction in the bladder. Diaphoresis, hypotension, and tachycardia are common side effects of morphine due to its vasodilatory effects and impact on the autonomic nervous system. Diaphoresis is excessive sweating, which can be a normal response to pain or fever. Hypotension and tachycardia can occur due to morphine's vasodilatory effects and its impact on the cardiovascular system. Therefore, the presence of urinary retention would indicate the need for further assessment and intervention.

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