Nursing Elites

1. What is the first intervention for a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock?

• A. Administer epinephrine
• B. Administer oxygen
• C. Administer corticosteroids
• D. Administer antihistamines

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock as it helps reverse the severe allergic reaction by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and opening airways for improved breathing. Oxygen (Choice B) can be administered after epinephrine to support oxygenation. Corticosteroids (Choice C) may be used to prevent a biphasic reaction but are not the initial intervention. Antihistamines (Choice D) can help with itching and hives but do not address the life-threatening symptoms of anaphylaxis.

2. During a change-of-shift report, a nurse is receiving information about an adult female client who is postoperative. Which of the following client information should the nurse report?

• A. The client's oxygen saturation is 95%
• B. The client's blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg
• C. The client has a temperature of 36.8°C (98.2°F)
• D. The client's heart rate is 88/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is within the normal range and stable. Reporting this information is crucial to monitor the client's condition postoperatively. Oxygen saturation of 95% is acceptable, a temperature of 36.8°C (98.2°F) is normal, and a heart rate of 88/min is within the expected range for an adult female client, so these values do not raise concerns that require immediate reporting.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic pancreatitis. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make?

• A. Coffee with creamer
• B. Lettuce with sliced avocados
• C. Broiled skinless chicken breast with brown rice
• D. Warm toast with margarine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Broiled skinless chicken breast with brown rice. This option is suitable for a client with chronic pancreatitis as it is a low-fat, high-protein meal. Clients with pancreatitis should avoid high-fat foods like creamer, margarine, and avocados, making options A, B, and D incorrect choices.

4. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has tuberculosis and a new prescription for rifampin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should have my vision checked regularly while taking this medication.
• B. This medication can cause my urine to turn reddish-orange.
• C. I need to wear sunscreen and protective clothing while taking this medication.
• D. I will discontinue this medication if I experience nausea.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rifampin can cause a harmless reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine. Choice A is not related to rifampin; vision changes are not a common side effect of the medication. Choice C is more relevant to medications that cause photosensitivity reactions, not specifically rifampin. Choice D is incorrect because nausea is a common side effect of rifampin, but it does not warrant immediate discontinuation of the medication.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and reports mouth sores. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Dry, cracked lips.
• B. Red, swollen gums.
• C. White patches on the tongue.
• D. Pale, dry mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: White patches on the tongue are a sign of oral candidiasis, a common side effect of chemotherapy. This fungal infection can result in the development of white patches on the tongue. Dry, cracked lips (choice A) are more indicative of dehydration or lack of moisture. Red, swollen gums (choice B) may be a sign of gingivitis or periodontal disease. Pale, dry mouth (choice D) is not typically associated with mouth sores from chemotherapy.

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