what is the first intervention for a patient who is experiencing anaphylactic shock
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. What is the first intervention for a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock as it helps reverse the severe allergic reaction by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and opening airways for improved breathing. Oxygen (Choice B) can be administered after epinephrine to support oxygenation. Corticosteroids (Choice C) may be used to prevent a biphasic reaction but are not the initial intervention. Antihistamines (Choice D) can help with itching and hives but do not address the life-threatening symptoms of anaphylaxis.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering enoxaparin is to inject the medication deep into subcutaneous tissue. This method helps ensure proper absorption of the medication and prevents tissue irritation. Injecting into the deltoid muscle (Choice A) is not recommended for enoxaparin administration. Massaging the injection site (Choice C) can lead to tissue damage and bruising. Inserting the needle at a 10-degree angle (Choice D) is not the correct technique for administering enoxaparin.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has a gastrostomy tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering an intermittent enteral feeding through a gastrostomy tube requires flushing the tube with 10 mL of sterile water before feeding. This action helps ensure patency and prevents clogging. Choice A is incorrect because flushing after feeding does not address the need for pre-feeding tube flushing. Choice C is unrelated to tube feeding administration. Choice D is incorrect as the height of the feeding bag above the abdomen is typically regulated by healthcare facility policies and is not a universal standard.

4. A client is being assessed in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria is a sign of decreased cardiac output. Decreased cardiac output can lead to poor renal perfusion, resulting in decreased urine output (oliguria). This requires immediate intervention to improve cardiac function and perfusion. Shivering (Choice A) is a response to cold stress and does not directly indicate decreased cardiac output. Bradypnea (Choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (Choice D) are associated with the parasympathetic nervous system response and not directly related to cardiac output.

5. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with fluid overload in heart failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring daily weight is crucial in managing a patient with fluid overload in heart failure. Weight fluctuations can indicate fluid retention or loss, guiding healthcare professionals in adjusting treatment. While checking for edema (Choice B) and monitoring intake and output (Choice C) are important aspects of patient care, they are not as direct in assessing fluid overload as daily weight monitoring. Administering diuretics (Choice D) is a treatment option based on the assessment of fluid overload, making it a secondary intervention compared to monitoring weight.

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