ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam
1. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy and receiving education from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I can have clear liquids up to 2 hours before the procedure.
- B. I need to take a laxative the night before the procedure.
- C. I will be sedated during the procedure.
- D. I should avoid eating solid foods for 24 hours before the procedure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients are typically instructed to avoid solid foods for 12-24 hours before a colonoscopy, not a full 24 hours. This statement indicates a need for further teaching to ensure the client follows the correct dietary instructions for the procedure.
2. During an assessment, a nurse is evaluating a pregnant client for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client requires further evaluation for this disorder?
- A. Increased urine output
- B. Vaginal discharge
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Joint pain
Correct answer: Elevated blood pressure
Rationale: Preeclampsia is characterized by elevated blood pressure, proteinuria, and sometimes edema. Hypertension is a key sign of preeclampsia, and if present, further evaluation and monitoring are necessary to prevent complications for both the mother and the fetus.
3. How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient who has been prescribed digoxin?
- A. Monitor potassium levels
- B. Monitor heart rate
- C. Check digoxin levels
- D. Check blood glucose levels
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct way to monitor a patient who has been prescribed digoxin is by checking digoxin levels. Digoxin is a medication used to treat various heart conditions, and monitoring its levels in the blood is crucial to prevent toxicity. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice A) is important as well, as digoxin can affect potassium levels, but checking digoxin levels is more specific to monitoring the medication itself. Monitoring heart rate (Choice B) is relevant but does not directly assess the medication levels. Checking blood glucose levels (Choice D) is not typically indicated specifically for patients prescribed digoxin.
4. A nurse is caring for a 25-year-old male quadriplegic client. Which of the following treatments would the nurse perform to decrease the risk of joint contracture and promote joint mobility?
- A. Administer glucosamine supplements
- B. Turn the client every 2 hours
- C. Provide active range of motion (ROM)
- D. Provide passive range of motion (ROM)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to provide passive range of motion (ROM). In quadriplegic clients, who have limited or no movement of their limbs, passive ROM exercises are crucial to maintain joint mobility and prevent joint contractures. Administering glucosamine supplements (choice A) is not directly related to promoting joint mobility. Turning the client every 2 hours (choice B) is essential for preventing pressure ulcers but does not directly address joint contracture and mobility. Providing active ROM exercises (choice C) may not be suitable for quadriplegic clients as they are unable to perform these movements on their own.
5. What is the appropriate medication to administer for a suspected opioid overdose in a patient who comes to the hospital?
- A. Exenatide
- B. Naloxone
- C. Heparin
- D. Tolvaptan
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Naloxone. Naloxone is the drug of choice for managing opioid overdoses as it competitively antagonizes opioid receptors, reversing the respiratory depression and sedation caused by opioids. It is crucial in the emergency treatment of opioid overdose to prevent fatal outcomes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Exenatide is a medication used to treat diabetes, heparin is an anticoagulant, and tolvaptan is a diuretic. None of these medications are indicated for the management of opioid overdose.
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