Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy and receiving education from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I can have clear liquids up to 2 hours before the procedure.
• B. I need to take a laxative the night before the procedure.
• C. I will be sedated during the procedure.
• D. I should avoid eating solid foods for 24 hours before the procedure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients are typically instructed to avoid solid foods for 12-24 hours before a colonoscopy, not a full 24 hours. This statement indicates a need for further teaching to ensure the client follows the correct dietary instructions for the procedure.

2. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?

• A. 1530 (3:30 PM)
• B. 1600 (4:00 PM)
• C. 1630 (4:30 PM)
• D. 1700 (5:00 PM)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding requires the nurse to take immediate action?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
• C. Client reports shortness of breath
• D. Client's respiratory rate decreases to 10 breaths per minute

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A decrease in the client's respiratory rate to 10 breaths per minute, while receiving oxygen therapy for COPD, is a concerning finding that may indicate carbon dioxide retention and respiratory depression. This situation requires immediate action to prevent further complications. An oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients on oxygen therapy. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and reports of shortness of breath are common in clients with COPD and may not necessitate immediate action unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

4. A healthcare professional is auscultating the lungs of a client who has pleurisy. Which of the following adventitious breath sounds should the professional expect to hear?

• A. Loud, scratchy sounds
• B. Squeaky, musical sounds
• C. Popping sounds
• D. Snoring sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When auscultating the lungs of a client with pleurisy, the healthcare professional should expect to hear loud, scratchy sounds. These sounds are characteristic of pleurisy, which is an inflammation of the pleura, causing a rough, grating sound during breathing.

5. The client with a chest tube after a coronary artery bypass graft has significantly slowed drainage. What action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Increase the setting on the suction.
• B. Notify the provider immediately.
• C. Re-position the chest tube.
• D. Take the tubing apart to assess for clots.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: If the drainage from the chest tube decreases significantly, it may indicate a blockage by a clot, potentially leading to cardiac tamponade. The nurse's priority action should be to notify the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention. Increasing suction, re-positioning the chest tube, or disassembling the tubing independently are not appropriate actions without healthcare provider guidance in this situation.

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