Nursing Elites

1. A client with a pleural effusion is being assessed by a nurse. Which clinical manifestation does the nurse expect to find?

• A. Decreased breath sounds on the affected side
• B. Hyperresonance on percussion of the affected side
• C. Increased tactile fremitus on the affected side
• D. Tracheal deviation toward the affected side

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with pleural effusion, decreased breath sounds on the affected side are common due to the presence of fluid in the pleural space. Hyperresonance is not expected; dullness on percussion is more likely. Tactile fremitus is typically decreased, not increased, in pleural effusion cases. Tracheal deviation away from the affected side, not toward it, can be seen with large effusions.

2. While caring for a client receiving positive-pressure mechanical ventilation, which intervention should the nurse NOT implement to prevent complications?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30�.
• B. Verify the prescribed ventilator settings daily.
• C. Administer pantoprazole as prescribed.
• D. Reposition the endotracheal tube to the opposite side of the mouth daily.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repositioning the endotracheal tube to the opposite side of the mouth daily is not a standard practice and can increase the risk of complications, such as accidental extubation or damage to the airway. The endotracheal tube should remain in the initial correct position to ensure proper ventilation and prevent harm to the client. Elevating the head of the bed, verifying ventilator settings, and administering pantoprazole as prescribed are all appropriate interventions to prevent complications in a client receiving positive-pressure mechanical ventilation.

3. A newly graduated nurse in the hospital states that, since she is so new, she cannot participate in quality improvement (QI) projects. What response by the precepting nurse is best?

• A. All staff nurses are required to participate in quality improvement projects.
• B. Even as a new nurse, you can implement activities designed to improve care.
• C. It's easy to identify which indicators should be used to measure quality improvement.
• D. You should ask to be assigned to the research and quality committee.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response is to encourage the newly graduated nurse to actively participate in quality improvement initiatives. Being new does not preclude one from contributing to improving care processes and outcomes. By engaging in small activities focused on quality improvement, the new nurse can start making a positive impact and learn valuable skills early in their career.

4. A client is admitted with a pulmonary embolism (PE). The client is young, healthy, and active, and has no known risk factors for PE. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage the client to walk for 5 minutes each hour.
• B. Refer the client for smoking cessation classes.
• C. Teach the client about factor V Leiden testing.
• D. Explain to the client that sometimes no cause for the disease is found.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to teach the client about factor V Leiden testing. Factor V Leiden is an inherited thrombophilia that can lead to abnormal clotting events, including pulmonary embolism (PE). In a case where a client has no known risk factors for PE, testing for this genetic disorder is crucial to determine if it is a contributing factor. Encouraging the client to walk or referring them to smoking cessation classes, while beneficial for overall health, are not directly relevant to the development of a PE in this specific case. While it is true that sometimes no cause for a disease is found, prematurely assuming this without appropriate investigations may lead to missed opportunities for preventive measures or treatments.

5. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?

• A. 1530 (3:30 PM)
• B. 1600 (4:00 PM)
• C. 1630 (4:30 PM)
• D. 1700 (5:00 PM)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.

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