Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) appears thin and disheveled. Which question should the nurse ask first?

• A. Do you have a strong support system?
• B. What do you understand about your disease?
• C. Do you experience shortness of breath with basic activities?
• D. What medications are you prescribed to take each day?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with severe COPD, shortness of breath can significantly impact their ability to perform basic activities like bathing and eating. Therefore, the nurse's priority should be to assess if shortness of breath is interfering with the client's basic activities, which can provide crucial information for planning and managing care.

2. A nurse is caring for four hospitalized clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as being at risk for fluid volume deficit?

• A. The client who has been NPO since midnight for endoscopy
• B. The client who has left-sided heart failure and has a brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) level of 600 pg/mL
• C. The client who has end-stage renal failure and is scheduled for dialysis today
• D. The client who has gastroenteritis and is febrile

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gastroenteritis can lead to fluid loss through vomiting and diarrhea, especially when accompanied by fever. Fever can increase insensible water loss through sweating as well. Both vomiting and diarrhea can significantly contribute to fluid volume deficit, making the client with gastroenteritis and fever at higher risk compared to the other clients described in the options.

3. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?

• A. 1530 (3:30 PM)
• B. 1600 (4:00 PM)
• C. 1630 (4:30 PM)
• D. 1700 (5:00 PM)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.

4. A client with dyspnea and difficulty climbing stairs is classified as having class III dyspnea. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Assistance with activities of daily living.
• B. Daily physical therapy activities.
• C. Oxygen therapy at 2 liters per nasal cannula.
• D. Complete bedrest with frequent repositioning.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Class III dyspnea indicates significant limitations in activity due to shortness of breath. Clients with this level of dyspnea should be encouraged to participate in activities within their tolerance levels. Providing assistance with activities of daily living helps conserve energy for essential tasks while promoting independence. Oxygen therapy is only necessary if hypoxia is present, and complete bedrest is generally not recommended for clients with dyspnea unless specifically indicated.

5. A client with hypertension is being taught about lifestyle modifications. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will reduce my sodium intake to help control my blood pressure.
• B. I need to start walking at least 30 minutes most days of the week.
• C. I can continue drinking alcohol as long as it is not in excess.
• D. I will check my blood pressure regularly at home.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In hypertension management, it is crucial for clients to limit or avoid alcohol consumption, not just refrain from excess. Alcohol can raise blood pressure and interfere with the effectiveness of antihypertensive medications, making it a key lifestyle modification for individuals with hypertension.

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