Nursing Elites

1. A client who is postpartum and diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia is receiving education from a nurse. Which dietary recommendation should be included in the education plan?

• A. Yogurt and mozzarella
• B. Spinach and beef
• C. Fish and cottage cheese
• D. Turkey slices and milk

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spinach and beef. Spinach is a good source of non-heme iron, while beef provides heme iron, both essential for treating iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt and mozzarella (choice A) are not significant sources of iron. Fish and cottage cheese (choice C) do not provide as much iron as spinach and beef. Turkey slices and milk (choice D) are also not as rich in iron compared to spinach and beef.

2. In a routine sputum analysis, which of the following indicates proper nursing action before sputum collection?

• A. Secure a clean container
• B. Discard the container if the outside becomes soiled
• C. Rinse the client's mouth with water after collection
• D. Tell the client that 4 tablespoons of sputum are needed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Before sputum collection, it is crucial to use a clean container to prevent specimen contamination. This step is essential to ensure accurate test results and to avoid introducing external particles or bacteria into the sample. Choice B is incorrect because discarding the container if the outside becomes soiled is not a standard practice before collection. Choice C is incorrect as rinsing the client's mouth with Listerine after collection can introduce unnecessary substances into the specimen. Choice D is incorrect as the amount of sputum needed should be determined by the healthcare provider, not the client.

3. What type of food should a patient taking anticoagulants be cautious about consuming?

• A. High-protein foods
• B. High-fiber foods
• C. High-vitamin K foods
• D. High-calcium foods

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients taking anticoagulants should be cautious about consuming high-vitamin K foods. Vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of anticoagulants by affecting blood clotting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly interact with the action of anticoagulants.

4. The nurse is caring for a client in a sickle cell crisis. Which is the pain regimen of choice to relieve the pain?

• A. Frequent aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and a non-narcotic analgesic
• B. Motrin (ibuprofen), an NSAID, PRN
• C. Demerol (meperidine), a narcotic analgesic, every four (4) hours
• D. Morphine, a narcotic analgesic, every two (2) to three (3) hours PRN

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Morphine is the preferred analgesic in sickle cell crisis due to its potency and effectiveness in managing severe pain.

5. The Army Medical Department has four major functions. Three are prevention, treatment, and evacuation. What is the fourth?

• A. Preparation
• B. Training
• C. Mobilization
• D. Selection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Mobilization.' Mobilization is the fourth major function of the Army Medical Department. This involves preparing and organizing medical resources and personnel for deployment during military operations. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important aspects in military healthcare, they do not represent the fourth major function of the Army Medical Department as specifically requested in the question.

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