ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2
1. The nurse prepares to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a newborn with a diagnosis of heart failure and notes that the apical rate is 140 beats per minute. Which nursing action is appropriate?
- A. Hold the medication
- B. Administer the digoxin
- C. Notify the healthcare provider
- D. Recheck the apical rate in 1 hour
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the digoxin. An apical rate of 140 bpm is within the normal range for a newborn. Digoxin is commonly prescribed for heart failure in newborns to help improve cardiac function. Holding the medication or notifying the healthcare provider is not necessary as the heart rate is normal for a newborn. Rechecking the apical rate in 1 hour is not needed since the heart rate is within the expected range.
2. Which drugs may cause weight gain?
- A. Amphetamines
- B. Steroids
- C. Antibiotics
- D. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Steroids are known to cause weight gain as a side effect. Amphetamines, antibiotics, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are not typically associated with weight gain. Amphetamines are more likely to cause weight loss due to their stimulant effects, antibiotics are not commonly linked to weight gain, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs usually do not lead to significant weight changes.
3. The nurse writes a problem of “potential for complication related to ovarian hyperstimulation” for a client who is taking clomiphene (Clomid), an ovarian stimulant. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Instruct the client to delay intercourse until menses
- B. Schedule the client for frequent pelvic sonograms
- C. Explain that the infusion therapy will take 21 days
- D. Discuss that this may cause an ectopic pregnancy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Frequent pelvic sonograms help monitor for ovarian hyperstimulation, a serious potential side effect of clomiphene. Instructing the client to delay intercourse until menses (choice A) is not directly related to monitoring or managing ovarian hyperstimulation. Explaining the duration of infusion therapy (choice C) is not relevant to the potential complication of ovarian hyperstimulation. Discussing the risk of ectopic pregnancy (choice D) is important but not the most appropriate intervention for managing ovarian hyperstimulation.
4. Six hours after major abdominal surgery, a male client complains of severe abdominal pain; is pale and perspiring; has a thready, rapid pulse; and states he feels faint. The nurse checks the client’s medication administration record and determines that the client receives another injection of pain medication in an hour. What is the appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Explain to the client that it is too early to have an injection for pain
- B. Call the practitioner, report the client’s symptoms, and obtain further orders
- C. Reposition the client for greater comfort and turn on the television as a distraction
- D. Prepare the injection and administer it to the client early because of the severe pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to call the practitioner, report the client’s symptoms, and obtain further orders. The client's symptoms, including severe abdominal pain, pallor, perspiration, thready rapid pulse, and feeling faint, are indicative of potential complications like internal bleeding, which require immediate medical evaluation. Explaining to the client that it is too early for pain medication or repositioning the client for comfort are not appropriate actions given the severity of the symptoms. Administering the injection early without consulting the practitioner can be dangerous and may worsen the client's condition.
5. The nurse is caring for a client who goes into ventricular tachycardia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Call a code immediately
- B. Assess the client for a pulse
- C. Begin chest compressions
- D. Continue to monitor the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client for a pulse. In ventricular tachycardia, the priority is to determine if the client has a pulse. If there is no pulse, immediate initiation of CPR with chest compressions is required. Calling a code or continuing to monitor the client can delay life-saving interventions. Therefore, assessing for a pulse is the most crucial step in managing ventricular tachycardia.
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