Nursing Elites

1. A client who _____ diet requires _____ amounts of vitamin C.

• A. Follows a vegan diet
• B. Smokes cigarettes
• C. Follows a ketogenic diet
• D. Is lactose intolerant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients who smoke require more vitamin C due to increased oxidative stress and depletion of vitamin C. Smoking leads to higher levels of oxidative stress in the body, which in turn increases the utilization of vitamin C to counteract the damage caused by free radicals. Choices A, C, and D do not directly impact the body's need for vitamin C as smoking does.

2. An important part of nutrition therapy for patients with cystic fibrosis is:

• A. A low-fat diet to prevent steatorrhea
• B. A low-sodium diet to normalize fluid status
• C. A high-fiber diet to normalize bowel function
• D. Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy to help digestion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy to help digestion. In cystic fibrosis, pancreatic insufficiency leads to the malabsorption of nutrients, making it essential for patients to take pancreatic enzymes to aid in digestion. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because a low-fat diet may not provide adequate nutrition for cystic fibrosis patients, a low-sodium diet is not the primary focus of nutrition therapy in cystic fibrosis, and a high-fiber diet may exacerbate gastrointestinal symptoms due to malabsorption.

3. A client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia is expected to exhibit which clinical finding?

• A. Crying
• B. Self-mutilation
• C. Immobile posturing
• D. Repetitious activities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In catatonic schizophrenia, immobile posturing is a common clinical finding where the patient may maintain a rigid or bizarre posture for prolonged periods. Crying (Choice A) is not typically associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Self-mutilation (Choice B) is more commonly seen in conditions like borderline personality disorder. Repetitious activities (Choice D) are not a hallmark symptom of catatonic schizophrenia.

4. What is established when threats to air resources prevent evacuation by air from forward units?

• A. Area support medical battalions
• B. TOE units
• C. Ambulance exchange points
• D. Field hospitals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ambulance exchange points are set up when threats to air resources make it impossible to evacuate by air from forward units. These points serve as locations where patients can be transferred from ambulances to aircraft for further evacuation. Area support medical battalions (Choice A) are not directly related to this scenario, as they provide medical support to larger areas. TOE units (Choice B) refer to tables of organization and equipment, not specific to this situation. Field hospitals (Choice D) are more permanent facilities for treating patients and are not specifically for transferring patients under threats to air resources.

5. At the end of the Practical Nurse Course, the student receives a structured review to prepare the student for which of the following?

• A. The Army Nurse Course
• B. Out-processing
• C. The next duty assignment
• D. The practical nurse licensure examination

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The structured review at the end of the Practical Nurse Course aims to prepare students for the practical nurse licensure examination. This exam is a crucial step for individuals to become licensed practical nurses, ensuring they meet the required standards and qualifications to practice in the field. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the focus of the review is specifically geared towards preparing students for the licensure examination, not for other courses, administrative processes, or duty assignments.

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