Nursing Elites

1. A client is postoperative following cataract surgery. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid lying flat for 24 hours after surgery.
• B. Avoid bending at the waist.
• C. Wear an eye patch at night for 1 week.
• D. Sleep on your affected side to reduce discomfort.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include for a client postoperative following cataract surgery is to avoid bending at the waist. Bending at the waist can increase intraocular pressure, which is not recommended after cataract surgery. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because lying flat for 24 hours after surgery may not be necessary, wearing an eye patch at night for a week is not a standard postoperative instruction for cataract surgery, and sleeping on the affected side may not necessarily reduce discomfort and can increase pressure on the eye.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased level of consciousness
• B. Inability to identify common objects
• C. Poor problem-solving ability
• D. Preoccupation with somatic disturbances

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In schizophrenia, clients often display an inability to identify common objects due to cognitive impairment. This is known as associative agnosia, where individuals struggle to recognize familiar objects, faces, or sounds. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with schizophrenia. Decreased level of consciousness is more indicative of conditions like head trauma or drug overdose. Poor problem-solving ability may be seen in various mental health disorders but is not specific to schizophrenia. Preoccupation with somatic disturbances is more commonly seen in somatic symptom disorders or somatic delusions, not a typical finding in schizophrenia.

3. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. You should lie down before taking this medication.
• B. You should take this medication on an empty stomach.
• C. You should never take a double dose if you miss one.
• D. You should store this medication in its original container at room temperature.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to lie down before taking the medication. Nitroglycerin can cause a sudden drop in blood pressure leading to dizziness or fainting, so taking the medication while lying down helps prevent falls. Choice B is incorrect because nitroglycerin is usually taken on an empty stomach to enhance its absorption. Choice C is incorrect as taking a double dose of nitroglycerin can lead to low blood pressure and other adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect as nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should be stored in their original container at room temperature away from light and moisture, not in the refrigerator.

4. What is the correct method of administering insulin to a patient with diabetes?

• A. Administer subcutaneously
• B. Administer intramuscularly
• C. Administer intravenously
• D. Administer orally

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct method of administering insulin to a patient with diabetes is to administer it subcutaneously. Insulin is typically injected into the fatty tissue just below the skin, allowing for a slow and consistent absorption into the bloodstream. Administering insulin intramuscularly (Choice B) is not recommended as it can lead to unpredictable absorption rates and potential complications. Administering insulin intravenously (Choice C) is only done in specific medical settings and not for routine diabetes management. Administering insulin orally (Choice D) is ineffective as the stomach acid would break down the insulin before it can be absorbed.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values indicates that the client's heparin therapy is effective?

• A. aPTT 75 seconds.
• B. INR 1.2.
• C. Hemoglobin 10 g/dL.
• D. Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aPTT of 75 seconds indicates that heparin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with DVT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy's effectiveness. Choice B, INR 1.2, is not the correct answer because INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, a different anticoagulant, not heparin. Choice C, Hemoglobin 10 g/dL, is not a measure of heparin therapy effectiveness. Choice D, Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL, is not a specific indicator of heparin therapy effectiveness for DVT.

Similar Questions