Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will need to check my blood glucose level once a week.
• B. I will limit my carbohydrate intake to 50 grams per day.
• C. I should avoid eating foods high in protein.
• D. I should eat a snack if my blood glucose level is below 200 mg/dL.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients with diabetes should eat a snack if their blood glucose level is below 70 mg/dL, not 200 mg/dL. Option A is incorrect because checking blood glucose levels once a week may not provide adequate monitoring for someone with diabetes. Option B is incorrect as a strict limit of 50 grams of carbohydrates per day may not be suitable for everyone and can vary based on individual needs. Option C is incorrect as it is important for clients with diabetes to have a balanced diet that includes protein in moderation.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Grilled chicken.
• B. Fresh fruit.
• C. White bread.
• D. Cheddar cheese.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.

3. A nurse is preparing to insert an IV catheter for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Apply a tourniquet above the insertion site
• B. Shave the area around the insertion site
• C. Insert the catheter at a 15-degree angle
• D. Use an 18-gauge needle for insertion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to insert the catheter at a 15-degree angle. This angle allows for easier venous access by ensuring proper catheter placement into the vein. Applying a tourniquet above the insertion site can help distend the vein for better visualization but is not the immediate action required for the insertion process. Shaving the area around the insertion site is not necessary unless there is excessive hair that may interfere with the insertion. Using an 18-gauge needle for insertion is a specific detail related to the equipment rather than the technique of insertion.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in patients receiving furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly leads to potassium loss in the urine, causing hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients taking furosemide. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with furosemide use.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Pallor
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pallor. Pallor, which is paleness of the skin, is a common sign of anemia due to a decreased number of red blood cells or hemoglobin levels. This results in reduced oxygen-carrying capacity, leading to the paleness of the skin. Choice A, increased appetite, is not typically associated with anemia. Choice C, tachycardia (increased heart rate), can be present in anemia as the body compensates for decreased oxygenation. Choice D, hypertension (high blood pressure), is not a common finding in anemia; instead, low blood pressure may be observed due to decreased blood volume.

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