a nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus which of the following statements by the client indicates an understa
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A client with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients with diabetes should eat a snack if their blood glucose level is below 70 mg/dL, not 200 mg/dL. Option A is incorrect because checking blood glucose levels once a week may not provide adequate monitoring for someone with diabetes. Option B is incorrect as a strict limit of 50 grams of carbohydrates per day may not be suitable for everyone and can vary based on individual needs. Option C is incorrect as it is important for clients with diabetes to have a balanced diet that includes protein in moderation.

2. A client practicing Orthodox Judaism informs the nurse they are observing the Passover holiday. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the Passover holiday, individuals practicing Orthodox Judaism follow dietary restrictions that include consuming unleavened bread. This symbolizes the haste with which the Israelites left Egypt and the lack of time for bread to rise. Providing chicken with cream sauce (Choice A) is not aligned with Passover dietary restrictions. Avoiding serving fish with fins and scales (Choice B) is a general dietary law in Judaism but not specific to Passover. Similarly, avoiding foods containing lamb (Choice D) is not a specific requirement during Passover.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving warfarin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the need for an increase in the dose of warfarin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An INR of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating inadequate anticoagulation. Therefore, the client would require an increase in the dose of warfarin to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of the need for a dose increase in warfarin therapy. PT of 28 seconds is within the therapeutic range, aPTT of 40 seconds is also within the normal range, and fibrinogen level of 350 mg/dL does not provide information about the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.

4. A patient is diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the affected extremity is crucial in managing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it helps reduce swelling and promotes venous return, thereby preventing further complications such as pulmonary embolism. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge a clot and lead to serious consequences. While ambulation is important, in DVT, early ambulation without elevation can potentially dislodge the clot. Warm compresses can increase blood flow to the area and worsen the condition by promoting clot dislodgement.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Captopril is known to cause a persistent, dry cough as a common side effect. Instructing the client about this potential side effect is crucial for their awareness. Choices A and B are incorrect because captopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because captopril can lead to hyperkalemia, so potassium supplements may be necessary in some cases.

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