ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam
1. A client with hypertension is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse on managing blood pressure at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take medication at bedtime.
- B. Check blood pressure once a week.
- C. Use a blood pressure cuff that fits snugly around the arm.
- D. Stop taking medication once blood pressure is within the normal range.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use a blood pressure cuff that fits snugly around the arm.' Using a properly fitting cuff is essential for accurate blood pressure measurements. Choice A is incorrect because the timing of medication administration should be individualized and not specified in the question. Choice B is incorrect as checking blood pressure once a week may not provide sufficient monitoring for a client with hypertension. Choice D is incorrect because stopping medication abruptly once blood pressure is normal can lead to rebound hypertension and complications.
2. A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?
- A. Substernal retractions
- B. Hematuria
- C. Temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F)
- D. Sneezing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Substernal retractions indicate respiratory distress in a sickle-cell client, which can be a sign of acute chest syndrome. This condition is a serious complication of sickle-cell anemia characterized by chest pain, fever, cough, and shortness of breath. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial for timely intervention. Choice B, hematuria, is not typically associated with acute chest syndrome but may indicate other issues such as a urinary tract infection. Choice C, a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), is slightly elevated but not a specific indicator of acute chest syndrome. Choice D, sneezing, is not a typical symptom of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider in this context.
3. A client who is postpartum requests information about contraception. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. The lactation amenorrhea method is effective for the first year postpartum.
- B. You should not use the diaphragm used before your pregnancy.
- C. Apply the transdermal birth control patch on your upper arm.
- D. Avoid using vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid using vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding. This instruction is important as spermicides can potentially affect the milk supply and cause irritation. Choice A is incorrect because the effectiveness of the lactation amenorrhea method diminishes after the first six months postpartum. Choice B is incorrect as using the diaphragm used before pregnancy may not fit properly due to changes in the body postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as the transdermal birth control patch is typically applied to the abdomen, buttocks, or upper torso, not specifically the upper arm.
4. A nurse is reviewing the medical records of a client with chronic heart failure. What dietary recommendation should the nurse make?
- A. Follow a 3g sodium diet.
- B. Drink at least 3 liters of fluid per day.
- C. Place the client's lower extremities on two pillows.
- D. Maintain the client's oxygen saturation at 89%.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Follow a 3g sodium diet. For clients with chronic heart failure, limiting sodium intake is crucial to prevent fluid retention and exacerbation of heart failure symptoms. High sodium intake can lead to fluid buildup, causing the heart to work harder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking excessive fluid can worsen fluid retention in heart failure, elevating the workload of the heart. Placing the client's lower extremities on two pillows is a positioning intervention to alleviate edema, not a dietary recommendation. Maintaining oxygen saturation at 89% is more related to respiratory status rather than dietary management of chronic heart failure.
5. A healthcare provider is assisting with mass casualty triage following an explosion at a local factory. Which of the following clients should the healthcare provider identify as the priority?
- A. A client who has massive head trauma
- B. A client who has full-thickness burns to the face and trunk
- C. A client with indications of hypovolemic shock
- D. A client with an open fracture of the lower extremity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a mass casualty situation, a client with hypovolemic shock should be the priority as they require immediate intervention to restore fluid volume and prevent further deterioration. Hypovolemic shock can lead to organ failure and death if not addressed promptly. While clients with other severe conditions like massive head trauma, full-thickness burns, or an open fracture also need urgent care, hypovolemic shock directly threatens the client's life due to inadequate circulating blood volume. Therefore, stabilizing the client with indications of hypovolemic shock takes precedence over others in this scenario.
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