Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is developing a care plan for a client who is receiving nitroprusside for severe hypertension. Which action should the nurse include?

• A. Administer calcium gluconate at the bedside.
• B. Monitor blood pressure every 2 hours.
• C. Limit light exposure to the infusion.
• D. Keep the client on NPO status.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the care plan for a client receiving nitroprusside for severe hypertension is to limit light exposure to the infusion. Nitroprusside is light-sensitive, so it should be protected from light exposure to prevent degradation. Administering calcium gluconate at the bedside is not directly related to nitroprusside administration. Monitoring blood pressure every 2 hours is a good practice but is not specifically related to the administration of nitroprusside. Keeping the client on NPO status is not necessary solely based on receiving nitroprusside.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?

• A. Calcium level of 9.0 mg/dL
• B. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• C. Respiratory rate of 18/min
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched sound that indicates airway obstruction and is the priority finding to report following a thyroidectomy. In this situation, airway compromise is a critical concern that requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. While calcium level (Choice A) and serum sodium level (Choice B) are important assessments post-thyroidectomy, they do not represent an immediate threat to the client's airway. A respiratory rate of 18/min (Choice C) falls within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate risk to the client's airway compared to the presence of stridor.

3. Which lab value is critical for monitoring warfarin therapy?

• A. Monitor INR
• B. Monitor platelet count
• C. Monitor sodium levels
• D. Monitor calcium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and bleeding risks associated with the medication. INR measures the clotting tendency of blood, which is essential in determining the appropriate dosage of warfarin. Monitoring platelet count (B), sodium levels (C), or calcium levels (D) is not primarily used for assessing warfarin therapy. Platelet count is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders, while sodium and calcium levels are typically monitored for different medical conditions unrelated to warfarin therapy.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following findings indicates a need to revise the client's plan of care?

• A. Serum sodium 144 mEq/L.
• B. HbA1c 10%.
• C. Random serum glucose 190 mg/dL.
• D. Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated random serum glucose levels of 190 mg/dL indicate hyperglycemia and poor blood sugar control, requiring a revised plan of care. HbA1c levels above 7% also indicate long-term poor control of blood sugar. Serum sodium of 144 mEq/L and creatinine of 1.2 mg/dL are within normal ranges and do not directly indicate a need for a plan of care revision.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a low-sodium diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Pickles
• B. Fresh vegetables
• C. Canned soup
• D. Smoked salmon

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fresh vegetables are an excellent choice for clients on a low-sodium diet as they are naturally low in sodium. Pickles, canned soup, and smoked salmon are high in sodium and should be avoided by clients following a low-sodium diet. Pickles are pickled in a brine solution high in sodium, canned soup usually contains added salt for preservation, and smoked salmon is a processed food that typically has a high sodium content.

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