Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease and is receiving hemodialysis. What dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Take magnesium hydroxide for indigestion.
• B. Drink at least 3L of fluid daily.
• C. Eat 1g/kg of protein per day.
• D. Consume foods high in potassium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a client with chronic kidney disease receiving hemodialysis, consuming 1g/kg of protein per day is important. This amount helps manage the condition without overburdening the kidneys. Choice A is incorrect because magnesium hydroxide is not specifically recommended for clients with chronic kidney disease. Choice B is not accurate as fluid intake needs to be individualized based on the client's condition and dialysis status. Choice D is incorrect because foods high in potassium should generally be limited for individuals with kidney disease undergoing hemodialysis to prevent hyperkalemia.

2. A client sustained a major burn over 20% of the body. What intervention should the nurse implement to meet the client's nutritional needs?

• A. Keep track of calorie intake for food and beverages.
• B. Provide a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet.
• C. Schedule meals at 6-hour intervals.
• D. Provide a high-protein, high-calorie diet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to provide a high-protein, high-calorie diet for a client with major burns. This type of diet is essential to support healing and recovery. High-protein intake is crucial as it helps in tissue repair and wound healing, while high-calorie intake is necessary to meet the increased metabolic demands of the body during the healing process. Keeping track of calorie intake (Choice A) is important but doesn't address the specific needs of a burn patient. Providing a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet (Choice B) is not suitable for burn patients as they require adequate protein for wound healing. Scheduling meals at 6-hour intervals (Choice C) may be helpful for maintaining a consistent eating schedule, but it is not as crucial as providing the correct high-protein, high-calorie diet.

3. Which of the following lab values indicates a patient on warfarin is at a therapeutic level?

• A. INR of 1.1
• B. PT of 12 seconds
• C. INR of 2.5
• D. Platelet count of 150,000

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An INR of 2.5 indicates a therapeutic level for a patient on warfarin. The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the most accurate way to monitor and adjust warfarin doses. An INR of 1.1 (Choice A) is below the therapeutic range, indicating a need for an increased dose. PT (Prothrombin Time) of 12 seconds (Choice B) is not specific for warfarin therapy monitoring. Platelet count (Choice D) is not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

4. A client with osteoporosis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following foods should be recommended?

• A. Almonds
• B. Spinach
• C. Yogurt
• D. Carrots

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Yogurt is a calcium-rich food that helps strengthen bones and should be recommended to clients with osteoporosis. Almonds, spinach, and carrots do not provide as much calcium as yogurt and are not as beneficial for individuals with osteoporosis.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory data of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider report?

• A. Serum calcium 8.5 mg/dL
• B. Blood glucose level 120 mg/dL
• C. Serum sodium 138 mEq/L
• D. Serum albumin 3.5 g/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum albumin 3.5 g/dL. A low serum albumin level indicates protein deficiency, which can be a complication of TPN therapy and requires prompt intervention. The other laboratory findings provided (serum calcium 8.5 mg/dL, blood glucose level 120 mg/dL, and serum sodium 138 mEq/L) are within normal ranges and do not specifically indicate complications related to TPN therapy.

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