ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease and is receiving hemodialysis. What dietary instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take magnesium hydroxide for indigestion.
- B. Drink at least 3L of fluid daily.
- C. Eat 1g/kg of protein per day.
- D. Consume foods high in potassium.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For a client with chronic kidney disease receiving hemodialysis, consuming 1g/kg of protein per day is important. This amount helps manage the condition without overburdening the kidneys. Choice A is incorrect because magnesium hydroxide is not specifically recommended for clients with chronic kidney disease. Choice B is not accurate as fluid intake needs to be individualized based on the client's condition and dialysis status. Choice D is incorrect because foods high in potassium should generally be limited for individuals with kidney disease undergoing hemodialysis to prevent hyperkalemia.
2. A healthcare provider is assisting with mass casualty triage following an explosion at a local factory. Which of the following clients should the healthcare provider identify as the priority?
- A. A client who has massive head trauma
- B. A client who has full-thickness burns to the face and trunk
- C. A client with indications of hypovolemic shock
- D. A client with an open fracture of the lower extremity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a mass casualty situation, a client with hypovolemic shock should be the priority as they require immediate intervention to restore fluid volume and prevent further deterioration. Hypovolemic shock can lead to organ failure and death if not addressed promptly. While clients with other severe conditions like massive head trauma, full-thickness burns, or an open fracture also need urgent care, hypovolemic shock directly threatens the client's life due to inadequate circulating blood volume. Therefore, stabilizing the client with indications of hypovolemic shock takes precedence over others in this scenario.
3. What is the priority nursing action for a patient with respiratory distress?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Reposition the patient
- C. Administer bronchodilators
- D. Provide chest physiotherapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing action for a patient with respiratory distress is to administer oxygen. Oxygen therapy is crucial in improving oxygenation levels and relieving respiratory distress, making it the top priority intervention. Repositioning the patient, administering bronchodilators, or providing chest physiotherapy may be necessary interventions depending on the underlying cause, but ensuring adequate oxygen supply should take precedence in addressing respiratory distress.
4. A nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?
- A. Remove the client's restraint every 4 hours.
- B. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
- C. Attach the restraint to the bed's side rails.
- D. Request a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When updating protocols for the use of belt restraints, it is essential to document the client's condition every 15 minutes. This frequent documentation helps ensure the client's safety and allows for timely assessment of the need for continued restraint use. Choice A is incorrect because restraints should be removed and reassessed more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed's side rails due to entrapment risks. Choice D is also incorrect as restraints should not be used as needed (PRN) but rather based on a specific prescription and assessment indicating the need for restraint use.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
- B. Heart rate of 88/min
- C. Respiratory rate of 20/min
- D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F) is slightly elevated, indicating a possible infection or inflammatory response, which should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits for a client postoperative, so they do not require immediate reporting. Elevated temperature can be a sign of infection or other complications, making it a priority for reporting and further assessment.
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