ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving gentamicin for a wound infection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 25 mg/dL
- B. Serum creatinine 1.5 mg/dL
- C. Serum glucose 110 mg/dL
- D. White blood cell (WBC) count 5,000/mm3
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An elevated BUN level indicates possible nephrotoxicity, which is a side effect of gentamicin and should be reported. Elevated serum creatinine and WBC count are not specifically related to gentamicin therapy. Normal serum glucose levels are also within the expected range.
2. What is the appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. Administer anticoagulants
- B. Encourage ambulation
- C. Apply compression stockings
- D. Monitor oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer anticoagulants. Anticoagulants help prevent further clot formation in patients with suspected DVT. Encouraging ambulation can be beneficial in preventing DVT but is not the immediate intervention for a suspected case. Compression stockings are more for DVT prevention rather than treatment. Monitoring oxygen saturation is important in assessing respiratory function but is not the primary intervention for suspected DVT.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?
- A. First-degree AV block.
- B. Premature ventricular contraction.
- C. Sinus bradycardia.
- D. Atrial fibrillation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a complication of GERD?
- A. Hematemesis.
- B. Melena.
- C. Pallor.
- D. Steatorrhea.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hematemesis. Hematemesis (vomiting blood) is a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding and a serious complication of GERD. Melena (black, tarry stool) is also a sign of GI bleeding but is not as specific to GERD as hematemesis. Pallor may be present due to anemia from chronic blood loss, but it is not a direct complication of GERD. Steatorrhea is not typically associated with GERD; it is more indicative of malabsorption issues.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is in a seclusion room following violent behavior. The client continues to display aggressive behavior. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Confront the client about this behavior
- B. Express sympathy for the client's situation
- C. Speak assertively to the client
- D. Stand within 30 cm (1 ft) of the client when speaking with them
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this situation, speaking assertively is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take. Confronting the client may escalate the situation further. Expressing sympathy, although important in other contexts, may not be effective in managing aggressive behavior. Standing within close proximity to an aggressive client can compromise the nurse's safety. Therefore, speaking assertively helps to set clear boundaries and manage the situation while ensuring safety in a seclusion room.
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