ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving gentamicin for a wound infection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 25 mg/dL
- B. Serum creatinine 1.5 mg/dL
- C. Serum glucose 110 mg/dL
- D. White blood cell (WBC) count 5,000/mm3
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An elevated BUN level indicates possible nephrotoxicity, which is a side effect of gentamicin and should be reported. Elevated serum creatinine and WBC count are not specifically related to gentamicin therapy. Normal serum glucose levels are also within the expected range.
2. What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing severe hypoglycemia?
- A. Administer IV dextrose
- B. Administer oral glucose
- C. Monitor blood sugar levels
- D. Recheck blood sugar in 15 minutes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best intervention for a patient experiencing severe hypoglycemia is to administer IV dextrose. This intervention is necessary to rapidly raise blood sugar levels in critical situations. Administering oral glucose may not be effective in severe cases as the patient may be unable to consume it. Monitoring blood sugar levels and rechecking blood sugar in 15 minutes are important steps but not the initial best intervention for severe hypoglycemia.
3. A nurse is creating a plan of care for a newly admitted client who has obsessive-compulsive disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?
- A. Allow the client enough time to perform rituals
- B. Give the client autonomy in scheduling activities
- C. Discourage the client from exploring irrational fears
- D. Provide negative reinforcement for ritualistic behaviors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder is to allow the client enough time to perform rituals. This helps manage anxiety and stress in individuals with OCD. Allowing time for rituals can provide a sense of control and reduce distress. Choice B, giving the client autonomy in scheduling activities, may not address the core symptoms of OCD related to rituals and compulsions. Choice C, discouraging the client from exploring irrational fears, goes against the principles of exposure therapy, which is a common treatment for OCD. Choice D, providing negative reinforcement for ritualistic behaviors, is not recommended as it can reinforce the behavior rather than help the client manage it.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Drainage of 75 mL in the past 24 hours.
- B. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber.
- C. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
- D. Tidaling in the water seal chamber.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber should be reported to the provider as it can indicate an air leak. This finding suggests that air is escaping from the pleural space, which can lead to lung collapse or pneumothorax. Drainage of 75 mL in the past 24 hours is within the expected range for a client with a chest tube and is not a cause for concern. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber is a normal finding that indicates the system is functioning properly. Tidaling in the water seal chamber is also an expected finding that shows the fluctuation of fluid with the client's breathing and is not alarming.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Administer magnesium sulfate.
- B. Place the client in the left lateral position.
- C. Monitor intake and output.
- D. Provide a low-sodium diet.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with severe preeclampsia is to monitor intake and output. This is crucial to assess kidney function, fluid balance, and detect any signs of deterioration. Administering magnesium sulfate is indicated for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia, but it is not the primary intervention related to care planning. Placing the client in the left lateral position is not a specific intervention for managing preeclampsia. Providing a low-sodium diet is not typically recommended for clients with severe preeclampsia as sodium restriction is not a primary treatment modality for this condition.
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