a nurse is assessing a client who has dehydration which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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LPN Fundamentals of Nursing Quizlet

1. A client is being assessed for dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dark-colored urine is a common sign of dehydration as the urine becomes concentrated. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid intake or excessive fluid loss, causing the urine to be darker in color due to increased urine concentration. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with dehydration; instead, dehydration often leads to low blood pressure. Increased skin turgor (Choice B) is actually a sign of good hydration, not dehydration. Bradypnea (Choice D), which refers to abnormally slow breathing, is not a common finding in dehydration.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has anemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pallor is a common finding in clients with anemia due to decreased hemoglobin levels. Anemia leads to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood, resulting in pale skin and mucous membranes, which is known as pallor. Bradycardia, hypertension, and jaundice are typically not associated with anemia.

3. A client has tuberculosis, and the nurse is planning care. Which of the following isolation precautions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Airborne. Tuberculosis is transmitted through the air, making it an airborne disease. Airborne precautions are crucial to prevent the spread of tuberculosis to others. These precautions include placing the client in a negative pressure room, wearing an N95 respirator mask, and ensuring proper ventilation to minimize the risk of transmission to healthcare workers and other clients. Choice A, Protective environment, is used for clients with compromised immune systems. Choice B, Contact precautions, are used for diseases spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice D, Droplet precautions, are for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, like influenza or pertussis.

4. A client has a new diagnosis of hyperkalemia and is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider on dietary management. Which of the following statements should the healthcare provider include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You should decrease your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Hyperkalemia is a condition characterized by excess potassium in the blood. To manage hyperkalemia effectively, it is crucial to reduce the intake of potassium-rich foods. This helps in lowering the overall potassium levels in the body and prevents complications associated with hyperkalemia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing the intake of potassium-rich foods (Choice A) would exacerbate hyperkalemia. Avoiding foods that contain lactose (Choice C) is not directly related to managing hyperkalemia. Increasing the intake of dairy products (Choice D) is not recommended as they can be a significant source of dietary potassium.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which of the following injection sites should the healthcare provider select?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The deltoid muscle is a common site for intramuscular injections in adults due to its accessibility and muscle mass. It is located in the upper arm and provides a sufficient area for injection. The deltoid muscle is preferred for administering vaccines and other medications that require IM administration. Choice B, the dorsogluteal muscle, is not recommended for intramuscular injections due to the proximity of major nerves and blood vessels in that area, which can lead to nerve damage or injury. Choice C, the vastus lateralis muscle, is more commonly used for infants and young children, while choice D, the rectus femoris muscle, is not typically used for intramuscular injections in adults.

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