Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Clozapine. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You should have a high-carbohydrate snack between meals and at bedtime.
• B. You are likely to develop hand tremors if you take this medication for a long period of time.
• C. You may experience temporary numbness of your mouth after each dose.
• D. You should have your white blood cell count monitored every week.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clozapine has a risk for fatal agranulocytosis, making weekly monitoring of the client's white blood cell (WBC) count essential to detect any potential issues early. This monitoring helps in managing the risk and ensuring the client's safety while on clozapine.

2. A client has a prescription for Nitroglycerin, and a nurse is providing teaching. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take one tablet every 15 minutes until pain is relieved.
• B. Take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to three doses.
• C. Take one tablet at bedtime.
• D. Take one tablet on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking Nitroglycerin is to take one tablet at the onset of chest pain, then repeat every 5 minutes for up to three doses. Option A is incorrect because taking a tablet every 15 minutes until pain is relieved may lead to delayed intervention. Option C is incorrect as taking Nitroglycerin at bedtime is not indicated for chest pain. Option D is incorrect as Nitroglycerin should be taken sublingually at the onset of chest pain, not on an empty stomach.

3. A client is being taught about a new prescription for Celecoxib. Which of the following information should be included in the teaching?

• A. Increases the risk for a myocardial infarction
• B. Decreases the risk of stroke
• C. Inhibits COX-1
• D. Increases platelet aggregation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Increases the risk for a myocardial infarction.' Celecoxib, a COX-2 inhibitor, increases the risk for a myocardial infarction due to its effect on suppressing vasodilation, which can lead to this adverse cardiovascular event. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Celecoxib does not decrease the risk of stroke, inhibit COX-1, or increase platelet aggregation. It's crucial for the nurse to educate the client about the increased risk for a myocardial infarction when taking Celecoxib and emphasize monitoring for signs of heart issues and the importance of seeking prompt medical attention if symptoms occur.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer morphine 4 mg IV to a client. Available is morphine 10 mg/mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?

• A. 0.2 mL
• B. 0.4 mL
• C. 0.6 mL
• D. 0.8 mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To administer 4 mg from a solution of 10 mg/mL, the healthcare professional should administer 0.4 mL. The calculation is done by dividing the desired dose (4 mg) by the concentration of the solution (10 mg/mL), which equals 0.4 mL. Choice A (0.2 mL) is incorrect because it is half of the correct calculation. Choice C (0.6 mL) is incorrect because it is 50% more than the correct calculation. Choice D (0.8 mL) is incorrect because it exceeds the correct calculation.

5. Which of the following is a potassium-sparing diuretic?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Spironolactone
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide
• D. Bumetanide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Spironolactone is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by antagonizing the aldosterone receptor, leading to potassium retention and sodium excretion. This mechanism makes it a suitable choice for conditions where potassium retention is desired, such as in patients with heart failure or liver cirrhosis. Choices A, C, and D are not potassium-sparing diuretics. Furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, and bumetanide are loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics, respectively, which promote the excretion of potassium.

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