Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a potential sign of Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Nausea
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nausea is a potential sign of Digoxin toxicity. Other signs of Digoxin toxicity include vomiting, visual disturbances, and confusion. Nausea can be an early indicator of toxicity and should be closely monitored by the nurse. Dry mouth and hypoglycemia are not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity. Tinnitus is more commonly associated with medications like aspirin or loop diuretics, not Digoxin.

2. A healthcare provider is providing instructions to the parent of an adolescent client who has a new prescription for Albuterol, PO. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?

• A. You should not use this medication for an acute asthma attack.'
• B. Tremors may be an adverse effect of this medication.'
• C. Long-term use of this medication can lead to hyperglycemia.'
• D. This medication can inhibit skeletal growth.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tremors may occur as a result of excessive stimulation of beta2 receptors in skeletal muscles when using Albuterol. It is important to educate the parent about potential adverse effects to ensure proper monitoring and management of the adolescent client's medication regimen.

3. When teaching a client with schizophrenia strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of Fluphenazine, which of the following should the nurse suggest to minimize anticholinergic effects?

• A. Take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
• B. Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth.
• C. Use cooling measures to decrease fever.
• D. Take an antacid to relieve nausea.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth.' Chewing sugarless gum can help alleviate dry mouth, which is a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. Dry mouth can be uncomfortable and affect the client's oral health. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address anticholinergic effects. Taking the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia (Option A) is unrelated to anticholinergic effects. Using cooling measures to decrease fever (Option C) is not a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. Taking an antacid to relieve nausea (Option D) does not specifically target anticholinergic effects.

4. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Cinchonism?

• A. Valproic acid
• B. Quinidine
• C. Isoniazid
• D. Ethosuximide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cinchonism is associated with Quinidine, not Valproic acid, Isoniazid, or Ethosuximide. Cinchonism is characterized by symptoms such as tinnitus, dizziness, and headaches. Quinidine, being an antiarrhythmic agent, can lead to this condition as a side effect.

5. A client is taking Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor, to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Increased TSH level
• B. Decreased ALT level
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyperlipidemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperlipidemia. Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor used in HIV treatment, can lead to hyperlipidemia, characterized by increased cholesterol and triglyceride levels. Monitoring lipid levels is crucial to identify and manage this potential adverse effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Ritonavir is not known to cause an increased TSH level, decreased ALT level, or hypoglycemia as adverse effects.

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