Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client receiving treatment with irinotecan, which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Hypertension
• C. Ototoxicity
• D. Neutropenia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is diarrhea. Irinotecan commonly causes diarrhea as an adverse effect due to its impact on the gastrointestinal tract. Monitoring for diarrhea is essential to prevent dehydration and manage this side effect effectively. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, ototoxicity, and neutropenia are not commonly associated with irinotecan therapy.

2. A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The medication has a long half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse expect to administer this medication?

• A. One
• B. Two
• C. Three
• D. Four

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Phenobarbital has a long half-life of 4 days, meaning it remains at therapeutic levels in the body for an extended period. Due to this prolonged duration of action, the nurse should expect to administer phenobarbital once a day to maintain therapeutic levels and effectiveness. Administering it more than once a day would lead to unnecessary dosing and potential adverse effects as the medication remains active in the body for an extended period.

3. A client has a prescription for Clindamycin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Avoid taking the medication with food.
• C. Discontinue the medication if diarrhea occurs.
• D. Expect to have increased appetite while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Clindamycin is to take the medication with a full glass of water. Clindamycin can cause esophageal irritation, so taking it with a full glass of water helps minimize this risk. Avoiding taking the medication with food is not necessary. If diarrhea occurs, clients should not discontinue the medication without consulting their healthcare provider. Clindamycin is not known to cause increased appetite.

4. A client with end-stage cancer receiving Morphine has been prescribed Methylnaltrexone. The client's daughter asks about the purpose of Methylnaltrexone. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. The medication will increase your mother's respirations.
• B. The medication will prevent dependence on the Morphine.
• C. The medication will relieve your mother's constipation.
• D. The medication works with the Morphine to increase pain relief.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methylnaltrexone is an opioid antagonist used to treat severe constipation unresponsive to laxatives in opioid-dependent clients. It functions by blocking the mu opioid receptors in the gastrointestinal tract, helping alleviate constipation associated with opioid use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Methylnaltrexone does not increase respirations, prevent dependence on Morphine, or work with Morphine to increase pain relief; its primary purpose is to relieve opioid-induced constipation.

5. A client's plasma Lithium level is 2.1 mEq/L. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Perform immediate gastric lavage.
• B. Prepare the client for hemodialysis.
• C. Administer an additional oral dose of lithium.
• D. Request a stat repeat of the laboratory test.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a plasma lithium level of 2.1 mEq/L, immediate gastric lavage is appropriate for severe toxicity. Gastric lavage can help lower the client's lithium level by removing the unabsorbed lithium from the stomach.

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