Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving discharge teaching regarding a new prescription for amoxicillin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will take this medication until my symptoms are gone.
• B. I will take this medication until it is finished.
• C. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. I will take this medication with milk.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. It is crucial for clients to complete the entire course of antibiotics as prescribed, even if symptoms improve. This helps to ensure that the infection is fully treated and reduces the risk of developing antibiotic resistance. Choice A is incorrect because stopping the medication when symptoms disappear can lead to incomplete treatment. Choice C is incorrect as amoxicillin can be taken with or without food. Choice D is incorrect because taking amoxicillin with milk can decrease its absorption.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Grilled chicken.
• B. Fresh fruit.
• C. White bread.
• D. Cheddar cheese.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.

3. Nurses caring for four clients. Which of the following client data should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. A client who has pleurisy and reports pain of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10 when coughing
• B. Client drained a total of 110 mL of serosanguineous fluid from the Jackson Pratt drain within the first 24 hours following surgery
• C. Client who is 4 hours postoperative and has a heart rate of 98 per minute
• D. The client has a prescription for chemotherapy and an absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client with chemotherapy and a low neutrophil count is at risk for infection and requires prompt intervention. Reporting this information to the provider is crucial to ensure appropriate monitoring and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate risk that requires immediate provider notification. A client reporting pain with pleurisy, a client draining fluid post-surgery, or a client with a heart rate of 98 per minute postoperative are not urgent enough to warrant immediate reporting compared to the client at risk for infection.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours.
• B. Check the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes.
• C. Obtain a prescription for restraint within 4 hours.
• D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Obtaining a prescription for restraint within 4 hours is the correct action when managing restraints in a client with acute mania. This timeframe ensures that the use of restraints is promptly evaluated and authorized by a healthcare provider. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary and may delay appropriate care. Checking the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes (Choice B) is important but not the immediate priority when dealing with obtaining a prescription for restraints. Documenting the client's condition every 15 minutes (Choice D) is essential for monitoring, but the priority is to secure a prescription for restraints promptly.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?

• A. Maternal fever.
• B. Fetal anemia.
• C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
• D. Chorioamnionitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the FHR baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates fetal bradycardia, which can be caused by maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia in the fetus rather than bradycardia. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to manifest as tachycardia due to compensation for decreased oxygen delivery. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) may lead to fetal tachycardia as a sign of fetal distress, not bradycardia.

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