a nurse is caring for a client who requires seclusion to prevent harm to others on the unit what action should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A client requires seclusion to prevent harm to others on the unit. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to document the client's behavior prior to being placed in seclusion. Documenting the behavior is crucial as it ensures that the decision to use seclusion is based on appropriate justifications and helps in monitoring the client's progress and response to the intervention. Offering fluids every 2 hours (Choice A) is not directly related to the need for seclusion. Discussing the client's behavior prior to seclusion (Choice C) may not be appropriate at the moment when immediate action is required to prevent harm. Assessing the client's behavior every hour (Choice D) is important but not as immediate as documenting the behavior prior to seclusion.

2. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium. Instructing the client to avoid foods high in potassium helps prevent hyperkalemia, a potential side effect of spironolactone. Choice A is incorrect because taking spironolactone with a potassium supplement can increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use. Choice D is also incorrect as spironolactone does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common finding in clients with hypokalemia, as potassium is essential for proper muscle function. Diarrhea (choice A) is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia. Hypertension (choice C) is not typically a direct result of low potassium levels. Bradycardia (choice D) is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.

4. A client who is at 10 weeks of gestation and experiencing nausea and vomiting is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should eat crackers before getting out of bed.' Eating crackers before getting out of bed can help reduce nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This recommendation helps in stabilizing blood sugar levels before fully waking up. Choice B is incorrect because ginger ale may exacerbate nausea due to its carbonation. Choice C is incorrect as lying down after eating can worsen symptoms of nausea. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding eating between meals can lead to low blood sugar levels, worsening nausea and vomiting.

5. What is the best intervention for a patient with respiratory distress?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient with respiratory distress because it helps improve oxygenation levels and alleviates respiratory distress directly. Providing oxygen addresses the primary issue of inadequate oxygen supply, which is crucial in managing respiratory distress. Repositioning the patient, while important for airway clearance, may not address the immediate need for oxygen. Providing bronchodilators and humidified air can be beneficial in certain respiratory conditions, but when a patient is in respiratory distress, ensuring adequate oxygenation through oxygen administration takes precedence.

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