ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. What is the initial action a healthcare provider should take when a patient presents with chest pain?
- A. Administer aspirin
- B. Give oxygen therapy
- C. Obtain ECG
- D. Prepare for surgery
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct initial action when a patient presents with chest pain is to obtain an ECG. This helps assess the heart's electrical activity and determine the cause of chest pain. Administering aspirin or oxygen therapy may be necessary later based on the ECG findings, but obtaining an ECG is the priority to evaluate the cardiac status. Surgery preparation is not the initial action for chest pain and should only be considered after a thorough assessment.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure of 98/58 mm Hg
- B. Urine output of 50 mL/hr
- C. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
- D. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy, and should be reported immediately. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are important assessments but are not as critical as managing serum potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure.
3. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Administer 0.9% sodium chloride with the TPN.
- B. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours.
- C. Weigh the client every 72 hours.
- D. Flush the TPN line with heparin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action the healthcare provider should include is changing the TPN tubing every 24 hours to decrease the risk of infection. Administering 0.9% sodium chloride with TPN is not typically recommended as it can cause chemical instability. Weighing the client every 72 hours is important but not directly related to TPN administration. Flushing the TPN line with heparin is not a standard practice and not recommended as it can increase the risk of complications.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is immediately postoperative following a subtotal thyroidectomy. Which of the following should the nurse expect to administer?
- A. Calcium gluconate
- B. Sodium bicarbonate
- C. Potassium chloride
- D. Sodium phosphate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Calcium gluconate is the correct answer because it is administered to treat hypocalcemia, a common complication post-thyroidectomy. After a thyroidectomy, there is a risk of damaging the parathyroid glands, which can lead to a decrease in calcium levels. Administering calcium gluconate helps to raise calcium levels. Sodium bicarbonate (Choice B) is not typically indicated for immediate postoperative care following a subtotal thyroidectomy. Potassium chloride (Choice C) is not directly related to the common complications of this specific surgery. Sodium phosphate (Choice D) is not typically used to address immediate postoperative issues post-thyroidectomy.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Cough.
- B. Dry mouth.
- C. Urinary retention.
- D. Insomnia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A persistent cough is a known adverse effect of enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause the accumulation of bradykinin, leading to a dry, persistent cough in some patients. Dry mouth (choice B) and urinary retention (choice C) are not typically associated with enalapril use. Insomnia (choice D) is also not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
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