what is the initial action a nurse should take when a patient presents with chest pain
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. What is the initial action a healthcare provider should take when a patient presents with chest pain?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct initial action when a patient presents with chest pain is to obtain an ECG. This helps assess the heart's electrical activity and determine the cause of chest pain. Administering aspirin or oxygen therapy may be necessary later based on the ECG findings, but obtaining an ECG is the priority to evaluate the cardiac status. Surgery preparation is not the initial action for chest pain and should only be considered after a thorough assessment.

2. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication.' Clients taking metformin should avoid alcohol as it increases the risk of lactic acidosis. Choice A is incorrect because metformin is usually taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect as metformin is typically taken with meals, not at bedtime. Choice D is incorrect because muscle pain is not a common side effect of metformin.

3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so increasing potassium-rich foods helps prevent hypokalemia. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is unrelated to furosemide therapy. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to limit calcium-rich foods while taking furosemide.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. The client's platelet count is 25,000/mm3. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with a low platelet count are at risk of bleeding and infection. Monitoring the client's temperature every 4 hours is crucial to detect early signs of infection, as they may not be able to mount a typical immune response due to their compromised platelet count. Administering aspirin (choice A) is contraindicated in clients with low platelet counts as it can further increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring urine output (choice C) and checking for stool in a colostomy bag (choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the priority in a client with low platelet count.

5. What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum creatinine. In patients with chronic kidney disease, monitoring serum creatinine is crucial as it reflects kidney function. This assessment helps healthcare providers in evaluating the progression of the disease and adjusting treatment plans accordingly. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is essential in managing chronic kidney disease, but monitoring serum creatinine takes precedence. Monitoring urine output (choice C) and potassium levels (choice D) are also important aspects of managing chronic kidney disease, but they are not the priority assessment compared to monitoring serum creatinine.

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