ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Dependence on family and friends
- B. Loss of interest in usual activities
- C. Ritualistic behavior
- D. Passive-aggressive behavior
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Loss of interest in usual activities. Clients with PTSD often exhibit symptoms such as numbing, which can manifest as a loss of interest in activities they once enjoyed. Choice A, dependence on family and friends, is more indicative of seeking support rather than a direct symptom of PTSD. Choice C, ritualistic behavior, is more commonly associated with conditions like obsessive-compulsive disorder. Choice D, passive-aggressive behavior, is not a typical finding in clients with PTSD.
2. What is the first action a healthcare provider should take for a patient with possible acute coronary syndrome?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Get IV access
- C. Auscultate heart sounds
- D. Obtain cardiac enzymes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering sublingual nitroglycerin is the initial priority action for a patient with possible acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, reduce chest pain, and improve blood flow to the heart muscle. This helps in relieving symptoms and preventing further damage to the heart. Establishing IV access, auscultating heart sounds, and obtaining cardiac enzymes are important steps in the assessment and management of acute coronary syndrome but are not the first actions to be taken. IV access may be needed for administering medications or fluids, auscultating heart sounds helps in assessing the heart's function, and obtaining cardiac enzymes aids in diagnosing a heart attack.
3. When starting therapy with bicalutamide, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Muscle pain
- B. Flushing
- C. Gynecomastia
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gynecomastia. Bicalutamide, due to its antiandrogenic properties, can lead to gynecomastia in clients. This condition involves the development of breast tissue in males and is an important adverse effect to monitor when taking this medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Muscle pain and flushing are not commonly associated with bicalutamide use. Hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of bicalutamide therapy.
4. A client is prescribed Diltiazem. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its negative chronotropic properties, slowing down the heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bradycardia by regularly assessing the heart rate to prevent potential complications. Monitoring for tachycardia (choice A) is incorrect as diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia. Hypertension (choice C) is not a typical finding to monitor for with diltiazem use. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is not directly associated with diltiazem administration.
5. What is the approximate energy value of alcohol?
- A. 3 kcal/g
- B. 7 kcal/g
- C. 10 kcal/g
- D. 25 kcal/g
Correct answer: B: 7 kcal/g
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 7 kcal/g. Alcohol provides approximately 7 kilocalories per gram, making it a significant source of energy or 'empty calories' in the diet that do not contain any nutrients. 'Empty calories' refer to the calorie content without the presence of essential nutrients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. The energy values of 3 kcal/g, 10 kcal/g, and 25 kcal/g are not accurate for alcohol; instead, they may pertain to other nutrients such as carbohydrates (approximately 4 kcal/g), fats (approximately 9 kcal/g), and oils (approximately 9 kcal/g).
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