Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Dependence on family and friends
• B. Loss of interest in usual activities
• C. Ritualistic behavior
• D. Passive-aggressive behavior

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Loss of interest in usual activities. Clients with PTSD often exhibit symptoms such as numbing, which can manifest as a loss of interest in activities they once enjoyed. Choice A, dependence on family and friends, is more indicative of seeking support rather than a direct symptom of PTSD. Choice C, ritualistic behavior, is more commonly associated with conditions like obsessive-compulsive disorder. Choice D, passive-aggressive behavior, is not a typical finding in clients with PTSD.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Fatigue
• B. Hair loss
• C. Nausea
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common side effect of radiation therapy due to damage to the salivary glands. It is essential for the nurse to monitor for this condition as it can lead to oral health issues and discomfort. Fatigue (choice A) is a common side effect of radiation therapy, but in this case, dry mouth is a more specific side effect to monitor for. Hair loss (choice B) is more commonly associated with chemotherapy rather than radiation therapy. Nausea (choice C) is also a common side effect of radiation therapy, but dry mouth is a more direct effect of the treatment that the nurse should focus on monitoring.

3. What is the most appropriate action when a patient is experiencing severe dehydration?

• A. Administer IV fluids
• B. Encourage oral fluids
• C. Monitor electrolytes
• D. Perform a neurological exam

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate action when a patient is experiencing severe dehydration is to administer IV fluids. This intervention is crucial in rapidly correcting dehydration and restoring fluid balance. Encouraging oral fluids may not be sufficient in cases of severe dehydration where intravenous rehydration is needed. Monitoring electrolytes is important but administering fluids takes precedence in severe dehydration. Performing a neurological exam is not the primary intervention for severe dehydration.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus about managing blood glucose levels. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. "I will monitor my blood pressure regularly."
• B. "I will keep my blood glucose level between 200 and 250 mg/dL."
• C. "I will take my insulin at the same time each day."
• D. "I will eat three large meals each day."

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Taking insulin at the same time each day helps maintain stable blood glucose levels and prevent complications.

5. What is the best dietary recommendation for a patient with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Low-protein diet
• B. High-protein diet
• C. Low-sodium diet
• D. High-sodium diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a low-sodium diet. Patients with chronic kidney disease are often advised to follow a low-sodium diet to help manage fluid retention. Excessive sodium intake can lead to fluid buildup in the body, causing complications for individuals with kidney issues. Choices A and B are incorrect because while protein intake may need to be monitored in kidney disease, the primary focus is typically on sodium restriction. Choice D is incorrect as a high-sodium diet would exacerbate fluid retention in patients with chronic kidney disease.

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