ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Dependence on family and friends
- B. Loss of interest in usual activities
- C. Ritualistic behavior
- D. Passive-aggressive behavior
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Loss of interest in usual activities. Clients with PTSD often exhibit symptoms such as numbing, which can manifest as a loss of interest in activities they once enjoyed. Choice A, dependence on family and friends, is more indicative of seeking support rather than a direct symptom of PTSD. Choice C, ritualistic behavior, is more commonly associated with conditions like obsessive-compulsive disorder. Choice D, passive-aggressive behavior, is not a typical finding in clients with PTSD.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum and reports perineal pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer analgesics as prescribed.
- B. Apply a warm compress to the perineum.
- C. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.
- D. Position the client with the head elevated.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering analgesics as prescribed is the appropriate intervention for managing perineal pain in a postpartum client. Analgesics help to alleviate discomfort and promote the client's recovery. Applying a warm compress (choice B) may provide some relief, but it does not address the pain as effectively as analgesics. Encouraging ambulation (choice C) and positioning the client with the head elevated (choice D) are not directly related to addressing perineal pain.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and is taking clozapine. Which finding should the healthcare provider identify as a contraindication to the administration of clozapine?
- A. Heart rate 58/min.
- B. Fasting blood glucose 100 mg/dL.
- C. Hgb 14 g/dL.
- D. WBC count 2,900/mm3.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: a low WBC count. Clozapine can suppress bone marrow function, leading to a decreased white blood cell count. This condition, known as agranulocytosis, increases the risk of severe infections. Monitoring WBC counts is essential during clozapine therapy. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and are not contraindications for administering clozapine.
4. Which lab value is essential for a patient receiving warfarin therapy?
- A. Monitor INR
- B. Monitor sodium levels
- C. Monitor potassium levels
- D. Monitor platelet count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the INR (International Normalized Ratio) for a patient receiving warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial to assess the effectiveness of warfarin in preventing blood clots while minimizing the risk of bleeding. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B), potassium levels (choice C), or platelet count (choice D) is not specifically essential for patients on warfarin therapy and does not provide direct information on the drug's anticoagulant effects.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?
- A. Calcium level of 9.0 mg/dL
- B. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- C. Respiratory rate of 18/min
- D. Stridor
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched sound that indicates airway obstruction and is the priority finding to report following a thyroidectomy. In this situation, airway compromise is a critical concern that requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. While calcium level (Choice A) and serum sodium level (Choice B) are important assessments post-thyroidectomy, they do not represent an immediate threat to the client's airway. A respiratory rate of 18/min (Choice C) falls within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate risk to the client's airway compared to the presence of stridor.
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