Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which resource should the healthcare provider provide?

• A. Personal blogs about managing the adverse effects of diabetes medications.
• B. Food label recommendations from the Institute of Medicine.
• C. Diabetes medication information from the Physicians' Desk Reference.
• D. Food exchange lists for meal planning from the American Diabetes Association.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Food exchange lists from the American Diabetes Association are a valuable resource for structured meal planning in individuals with diabetes. These lists categorize foods based on macronutrient content and help individuals plan balanced meals to manage blood sugar levels effectively. Personal blogs may not always provide accurate and evidence-based information. Food label recommendations from the Institute of Medicine are important but may not be as specific to meal planning for diabetes. Diabetes medication information is crucial but not the primary focus when providing dietary instructions.

2. A client has had vomiting and diarrhea for the past 3 days. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing fluid volume deficit?

• A. Jugular vein distention
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Increased respiratory rate
• D. Bounding pulses

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An increased respiratory rate is a sign of fluid volume deficit as the body attempts to compensate for decreased blood volume. Jugular vein distention, bradycardia, and bounding pulses are not typical findings of fluid volume deficit. Jugular vein distention is more commonly associated with fluid volume overload, bradycardia can be a sign of fluid volume excess or other issues, and bounding pulses are not typically seen in fluid volume deficit.

3. Which of the following lab values should the nurse monitor for a patient receiving heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor platelet count
• B. Monitor PT/INR
• C. Monitor aPTT
• D. Monitor CBC

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT for a patient receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to assess and adjust heparin dosage to ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. Monitoring the aPTT helps in preventing both clotting and bleeding complications. Platelet count (Choice A) is important to monitor for patients receiving antiplatelet therapy, not heparin. PT/INR (Choice B) is typically monitored for patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Monitoring the complete blood count (CBC) (Choice D) is essential for various conditions but is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who is experiencing acute mania. What intervention should the nurse include?

• A. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods.
• B. Withdraw TV privileges if the client does not attend group therapy.
• C. Place the client in seclusion during periods of anxiety.
• D. Encourage the client to spend time in the day room.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods. During acute mania, individuals often experience high levels of energy, decreased need for sleep, and increased activity levels. Encouraging the client to take frequent rest periods can help prevent exhaustion and promote better self-regulation. Choice B is incorrect because withdrawing TV privileges may not be directly related to managing acute mania. Choice C is incorrect as placing the client in seclusion can exacerbate feelings of anxiety and agitation. Choice D is incorrect as spending time in the day room may not address the need for rest and relaxation that is crucial during acute mania.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following medications should the nurse question?

• A. Calcium carbonate
• B. Furosemide
• C. Epoetin alfa
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which may lead to hyperkalemia in clients with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, its use should be questioned in this population. Choice A, Calcium carbonate, is commonly used to manage phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease. Choice B, Furosemide, is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but should be used with caution in kidney disease. Choice C, Epoetin alfa, is a medication used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease and anemia.

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