ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology
1. A client is receiving discharge instructions for a new prescription of Prednisone. Which of the following dietary instructions should be included?
- A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- B. Increase your intake of dairy products.
- C. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
- D. Decrease your intake of protein.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed Prednisone, there is a risk of potassium depletion due to the medication. Therefore, it is essential to increase the intake of potassium-rich foods such as bananas, oranges, and spinach to help maintain adequate potassium levels in the body and prevent complications associated with low potassium levels. Choice B and D are incorrect as there is no specific need to increase dairy products or decrease protein intake with Prednisone. Choice C is also incorrect as avoiding foods high in vitamin K is more relevant for clients taking anticoagulants like warfarin.
2. Which of the following best describes the method of action of medications, such as ranitidine (Zantac), which are used in the treatment of peptic ulcer disease?
- A. Neutralize acid
- B. Reduce acid secretions
- C. Stimulate gastrin release
- D. Protect the mucosal barrier
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Medications like ranitidine (Zantac) are H2 receptor antagonists that reduce acid secretions in the stomach, helping to treat peptic ulcer disease.
3. Which of the following management strategies is not included for a patient taking chemotherapeutic drugs?
- A. Limit exposure of pregnant visitors
- B. Protect client from infection
- C. Allow client to use makeup and wig
- D. Administer IV fluids as ordered
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Chemotherapy can lead to hair loss, and while using wigs is common, it is not a primary management strategy. The focus should be on limiting exposure to pregnant visitors to prevent harm to the fetus, protecting the client from infections due to a compromised immune system, and administering IV fluids as ordered to maintain hydration levels. Allowing the client to use makeup and wigs is not a primary concern when managing a patient taking chemotherapeutic drugs.
4. What do positive feedback mechanisms do?
- A. Cause long-term changes.
- B. Move conditions away from the normal state.
- C. Bring conditions back to the normal state.
- D. Usually produce stable conditions.
Correct answer: Move conditions away from the normal state.
Rationale: Positive feedback mechanisms amplify or increase changes in a system, moving conditions away from the normal state. This makes choice B the correct answer. Choice A is incorrect as positive feedback does not cause long-term changes but rather accelerates deviations from the norm. Choice C is incorrect because positive feedback does not bring conditions back to normal; instead, it amplifies deviations. Choice D is incorrect as positive feedback does not usually lead to stable conditions but rather to further deviations from the normal state.
5. What is the primary goal of patient advocacy in nursing?
- A. To ensure patient safety
- B. To provide emotional support
- C. To advocate for patient rights
- D. To provide financial assistance
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The primary goal of patient advocacy in nursing is to advocate for patient rights. While ensuring patient safety and providing emotional support are important aspects of nursing care, the core focus of patient advocacy is to uphold and protect the rights of patients. Providing financial assistance is not typically a primary goal of patient advocacy in nursing.
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