a nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for prednisone which of the following dietary instructions should t
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology

1. A client is receiving discharge instructions for a new prescription of Prednisone. Which of the following dietary instructions should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Prednisone, there is a risk of potassium depletion due to the medication. Therefore, it is essential to increase the intake of potassium-rich foods such as bananas, oranges, and spinach to help maintain adequate potassium levels in the body and prevent complications associated with low potassium levels. Choice B and D are incorrect as there is no specific need to increase dairy products or decrease protein intake with Prednisone. Choice C is also incorrect as avoiding foods high in vitamin K is more relevant for clients taking anticoagulants like warfarin.

2. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Timolol how to insert eye drops, which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct way to administer eye drops is by instructing the client to drop the prescribed amount of medication into the center of the conjunctival sac. This technique helps in proper distribution and absorption of the medication. Choice A is incorrect as pressing the inside corner of the eye is not necessary. Choice B is incorrect because applying eye drops directly on the cornea can cause irritation and discomfort. Choice D is incorrect as wiping the eyes immediately after application can remove the medication and reduce its effectiveness.

3. A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. To ensure the insulin is available when food is digested, the client should take this medication 30 minutes before each meal. This timing aligns the medication with the expected postprandial rise in blood glucose levels, optimizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking Repaglinide with meals, just before bed, or as soon as waking up does not align with the medication's mechanism of action and timing needed for optimal effectiveness.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who is prescribed Furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare provider monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to increased potassium excretion. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias associated with hypokalemia. Choice B, serum calcium, is incorrect because Furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels. Choice C, serum sodium, is less commonly affected by Furosemide use. Choice D, serum magnesium, is not the primary electrolyte affected by Furosemide, although magnesium levels may be affected indirectly.

5. A client with Atrial Fibrillation is prescribed Dabigatran to prevent Thrombosis. Which medication is prescribed concurrently to treat an adverse effect of Dabigatran?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is prescribed for clients taking dabigatran who experience abdominal pain and other gastrointestinal adverse effects associated with dabigatran use. Proton pump inhibitors help manage these symptoms effectively. Choice A, Vitamin K1, is incorrect as it antagonizes the activity of Dabigatran, counteracting its anticoagulant effect. Choice B, Protamine, is used to reverse the anticoagulant effects of heparin, not dabigatran. Choice D, Probenecid, is not typically used to treat adverse effects of dabigatran.

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