Nursing Elites

1. While caring for a client receiving IV heparin, which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Thrombocytopenia
• D. Leukopenia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thrombocytopenia, a decrease in platelet count, is a known adverse effect associated with heparin therapy. It can lead to an increased risk of bleeding and should be closely monitored during treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension is not typically associated with heparin use; hyperglycemia is not a common adverse effect of heparin; leukopenia is not a primary side effect of heparin therapy.

2. A client has a new prescription for rituximab. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Fever
• C. Urinary frequency
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to report fever. Fever can be an indication of an infection, a potential complication of rituximab therapy. Monitoring and reporting fever promptly can help in early intervention to prevent further complications. Dizziness, urinary frequency, and dry mouth are not typically associated with rituximab therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication. Therefore, they are not the priority findings to report in this scenario.

3. A healthcare professional is educating a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• B. Report any signs of bleeding to your healthcare provider.
• C. Use a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding.
• D. Use an electric razor to prevent cuts.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement that the healthcare professional should include when educating a client prescribed warfarin is to report any signs of bleeding to their healthcare provider. Bleeding can indicate excessive anticoagulation, which is a serious side effect of warfarin. Prompt reporting of bleeding symptoms is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While avoiding foods high in vitamin K may be important when taking warfarin due to its interaction with the medication, it is not the priority over reporting signs of bleeding. Using a soft toothbrush and electric razor are general precautions for individuals on anticoagulants but are not as critical as reporting bleeding symptoms.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Haloperidol 2 mg PO every 12 hr. The available medication is haloperidol 1 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer?

• A. 1 tablet
• B. 2 tablets
• C. 3 tablets
• D. 4 tablets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets needed, divide the desired dose by the dose per tablet. In this case, (2 mg / 1 mg/tablet) = 2 tablets required to administer the correct dosage of Haloperidol.

5. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

• A. INR of 4.0
• B. Potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L
• C. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
• D. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 4.0 is above the therapeutic range for a client on Warfarin, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. This finding requires immediate reporting to the provider for appropriate intervention to prevent complications associated with excessive anticoagulation. Potassium, sodium, and creatinine levels are within normal ranges and are not directly related to the risk of bleeding in a client on Warfarin therapy.

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