ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of Verapamil?
- A. I am frequently constipated.
- B. I have been urinating more frequently.
- C. My skin is peeling.
- D. I have ringing in my ears.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I am frequently constipated.' Constipation is a common adverse effect of Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker. Verapamil can slow down intestinal motility, leading to constipation as a side effect. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with adverse effects of Verapamil. Increased urination is not a common side effect, skin peeling is not related to Verapamil use, and ringing in the ears is not a typical adverse effect of this medication.
2. A client with end-stage cancer receiving Morphine is prescribed Methylnaltrexone. The client's daughter asks why the provider prescribed Methylnaltrexone. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. The medication will increase your mother's respirations.
- B. The medication will prevent dependence on the Morphine.
- C. The medication will relieve your mother's constipation.
- D. The medication works with the Morphine to increase pain relief.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is C: 'The medication will relieve your mother's constipation.' Methylnaltrexone is an opioid antagonist used to treat severe constipation unrelieved by laxatives in opioid-dependent clients. It works by blocking the mu opioid receptors in the GI tract, which helps alleviate constipation without affecting pain relief or causing withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Methylnaltrexone's primary action is related to managing constipation rather than increasing respirations, preventing dependence on Morphine, or enhancing pain relief when used alongside Morphine.
3. A client with heart failure is being instructed on laxative use. Which of the following laxatives should the client avoid?
- A. Sodium phosphate
- B. Psyllium
- C. Bisacodyl
- D. Polyethylene glycol
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sodium phosphate. Clients with heart failure often follow a sodium-restricted diet. Sodium phosphate laxatives can lead to sodium absorption, causing fluid retention, which is contraindicated in heart failure. It is crucial to avoid sodium phosphate laxatives in these clients to prevent exacerbation of fluid overload and heart failure symptoms. Psyllium (choice B), Bisacodyl (choice C), and Polyethylene glycol (choice D) are not contraindicated in clients with heart failure and can be used safely for bowel management.
4. A healthcare provider is providing instructions to the parent of an adolescent client who has a new prescription for Albuterol, PO. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?
- A. You should not use this medication for an acute asthma attack.'
- B. Tremors may be an adverse effect of this medication.'
- C. Long-term use of this medication can lead to hyperglycemia.'
- D. This medication can inhibit skeletal growth.'
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tremors may occur as a result of excessive stimulation of beta2 receptors in skeletal muscles when using Albuterol. It is important to educate the parent about potential adverse effects to ensure proper monitoring and management of the adolescent client's medication regimen.
5. A healthcare professional is caring for a hospitalized client who has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) greater than 1.5 times the expected reference range. Which of the following blood products should the healthcare professional prepare to transfuse?
- A. Whole blood
- B. Platelets
- C. Fresh frozen plasma
- D. Packed red blood cells
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma is the correct choice for a client with an elevated aPTT because it contains essential coagulation factors that can help correct coagulopathy and prevent bleeding. It is rich in clotting factors like fibrinogen, factors V and VIII, which are crucial in maintaining proper blood clotting function. Whole blood (Choice A) is not typically used to correct coagulopathy and is more suitable for situations requiring both volume and oxygen-carrying capacity. Platelets (Choice B) are indicated for thrombocytopenia, not for correcting coagulation factors. Packed red blood cells (Choice D) are used to increase oxygen-carrying capacity in cases of anemia, not for correcting coagulopathy.
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