a nurse is caring for a client who has breast cancer and is receiving cyclophosphamide which of the following findings should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. What finding should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is receiving cyclophosphamide, the nurse should monitor for hemorrhagic cystitis, a severe adverse effect caused by bladder irritation. It is essential to watch for signs such as hematuria, dysuria, and urinary frequency, and promptly intervene to prevent further complications. Hypertension (Choice A) is not typically associated with cyclophosphamide use. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is not a common side effect of cyclophosphamide. Ototoxicity (Choice C) is more commonly associated with medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics or high-dose aspirin.

2. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of tendon dysfunction?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fluoroquinolones are known to be associated with tendon dysfunction or rupture. These drugs can weaken the tendons, leading to potential issues such as tendonitis or even tendon rupture. It is essential for healthcare providers to be cautious when prescribing fluoroquinolones, especially in patients who may be at higher risk for tendon-related complications.

3. A client is prescribed Amitriptyline for depression. What should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Changing positions slowly can help prevent orthostatic hypotension, a common adverse effect of tricyclic antidepressants like Amitriptyline. It is essential to educate the client to avoid sudden position changes to minimize the risk of dizziness and falls. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. The therapeutic effects of Amitriptyline may not be noticeable for 1-3 weeks, so expecting them in 24 to 48 hours (choice A) is unrealistic. Discontinuing the medication abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should be done gradually under healthcare provider supervision, so choice B is incorrect. Amitriptyline can actually cause constipation, so increasing dietary fiber intake would be recommended to prevent constipation, making choice D incorrect.

4. A client with Peptic Ulcer Disease who is taking Sucralfate PO has a new prescription for phenytoin to control seizures. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sucralfate can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin. To prevent this interaction, the client should allow a 2-hour interval between taking sucralfate and phenytoin. This interval helps ensure that each medication is absorbed effectively without affecting the other's absorption. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking an antacid with sucralfate, taking sucralfate with a glass of milk, or chewing sucralfate thoroughly before swallowing are not necessary or recommended instructions to prevent the interaction between sucralfate and phenytoin.

5. What is the antidote for Heparin?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Protamine sulfate. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots. In cases of overdose or excessive bleeding due to Heparin, protamine sulfate is administered as the specific antidote. Protamine sulfate works by neutralizing Heparin's anticoagulant activity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Narcan (Naloxone) is used to reverse opioid overdose, Romazicon (Flumazenil) is used to reverse benzodiazepine overdose, and Naloxone is also used to reverse opioid overdose but is not the antidote for Heparin.

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