a nurse is caring for a client who has breast cancer and is receiving cyclophosphamide which of the following findings should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. What finding should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is receiving cyclophosphamide, the nurse should monitor for hemorrhagic cystitis, a severe adverse effect caused by bladder irritation. It is essential to watch for signs such as hematuria, dysuria, and urinary frequency, and promptly intervene to prevent further complications. Hypertension (Choice A) is not typically associated with cyclophosphamide use. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is not a common side effect of cyclophosphamide. Ototoxicity (Choice C) is more commonly associated with medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics or high-dose aspirin.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for several clients who came to the clinic for a seasonal influenza immunization. The provider should identify that which of the following clients is a candidate to receive the vaccine via nasal spray rather than an injection?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A 17-year-old can receive the influenza vaccine via nasal spray even if they have a hypersensitivity to penicillin, as this is not a contraindication for the influenza immunization. The nasal spray vaccine (LAIV) is a live attenuated vaccine that is suitable for healthy individuals aged 2-49 years. Pregnancy (choice C) is a contraindication for the nasal spray influenza vaccine. Children under 2 years of age (choice A) are also not candidates for the nasal spray. Taking a multivitamin supplement (choice D) is not a determining factor for the type of influenza vaccine a person should receive.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who is prescribed Furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare provider monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to increased potassium excretion in the urine. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the healthcare provider should closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels when they are prescribed Furosemide. While monitoring other electrolytes like sodium and magnesium may also be important in certain situations, the priority for a client prescribed Furosemide is to monitor serum potassium levels due to the risk of hypokalemia.

4. A client is taking Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor, to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperlipidemia. Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor used in HIV treatment, can lead to hyperlipidemia, characterized by increased cholesterol and triglyceride levels. Monitoring lipid levels is crucial to identify and manage this potential adverse effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Ritonavir is not known to cause an increased TSH level, decreased ALT level, or hypoglycemia as adverse effects.

5. A client with chronic renal disease is receiving therapy with epoetin alfa. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse review for an indication of a therapeutic effect of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The hematocrit (Hct). Monitoring the hematocrit is essential to assess the therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa because this medication stimulates red blood cell production in clients with chronic renal disease. The leukocyte count (choice A) and platelet count (choice B) are not directly affected by epoetin alfa therapy. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa.

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