Nursing Elites

1. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. What finding should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Ototoxicity
• D. Hemorrhagic cystitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is receiving cyclophosphamide, the nurse should monitor for hemorrhagic cystitis, a severe adverse effect caused by bladder irritation. It is essential to watch for signs such as hematuria, dysuria, and urinary frequency, and promptly intervene to prevent further complications. Hypertension (Choice A) is not typically associated with cyclophosphamide use. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is not a common side effect of cyclophosphamide. Ototoxicity (Choice C) is more commonly associated with medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics or high-dose aspirin.

2. When teaching a client with a prescription for long-term use of oral prednisone for chronic asthma, the nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Nervousness
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is weight gain. Weight gain and fluid retention are common adverse effects of oral prednisone due to sodium and water retention. Patients on long-term prednisone therapy should be advised to monitor their weight closely and report any significant changes to their healthcare provider. Choice B, 'Nervousness,' is not typically associated with oral prednisone use. Choice C, 'Bradycardia,' refers to a slow heart rate, which is not a common adverse effect of prednisone. Choice D, 'Constipation,' is not a typical adverse effect of oral prednisone; instead, gastrointestinal disturbances like increased appetite or even peptic ulcer disease may occur.

3. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer atenolol (Tenormin) to a client with angina. Which vital sign would cause the healthcare professional to question administering this drug?

• A. Respirations 12 breaths per minute
• B. Pulse 52 beats per minute
• C. Blood pressure 134/72
• D. Oxygen saturation 95%

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker medication that can lower heart rate. A pulse of 52 beats per minute is relatively low and administering atenolol could further decrease the heart rate, potentially leading to bradycardia. Monitoring the pulse rate and holding the medication if the pulse is below the prescribed parameters is crucial to prevent adverse effects such as bradycardia and hypotension.

4. A client has a new prescription for Losartan. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum sodium
• C. Serum calcium
• D. Serum magnesium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Losartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), can cause hyperkalemia. The nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels closely because Losartan can increase potassium levels, potentially leading to serious complications such as arrhythmias. Monitoring serum sodium, calcium, or magnesium levels is not typically necessary when a patient is prescribed Losartan, as these values are not directly affected by this medication.

5. A client has a new prescription for Phenytoin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Brush and floss your teeth regularly.
• B. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• C. Take this medication with food.
• D. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to brush and floss their teeth regularly. Phenytoin can lead to gingival hyperplasia, making oral hygiene crucial to prevent complications. Encouraging good oral care practices helps reduce the risk of adverse effects on the gums and teeth. Avoiding grapefruit juice is not specifically related to Phenytoin. While some medications require intake with food, Phenytoin is usually taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. Increasing calcium-rich foods is not directly associated with Phenytoin therapy.

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