Nursing Elites

1. A client is starting a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Weigh yourself daily.
• B. Limit sodium intake.
• C. Increase potassium intake.
• D. Avoid potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when starting furosemide is to weigh yourself daily. Daily weighing helps monitor for fluid loss or retention, which is crucial when taking a diuretic like furosemide. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because although monitoring sodium intake and potassium levels are important when taking furosemide, the most immediate and direct way to assess the medication's effectiveness and the body's response is through daily weight monitoring.

2. A client presents in the Emergency Department with chest pain. Which of the following conditions is least likely to cause chest pain?

• A. Arthritis
• B. Peptic ulcer disease
• C. Myocardial infarction
• D. Gastric reflux

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Arthritis is a condition primarily affecting the joints and is not known to cause chest pain. Peptic ulcer disease, myocardial infarction, and gastric reflux are conditions that can present with chest pain due to various reasons such as inflammation, ischemia, or reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus, respectively.

3. A client is being assessed by a healthcare provider while taking Digoxin to manage heart failure. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Bruising
• B. Report of metallic taste
• C. Muscle pain
• D. Report of anorexia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct manifestation of digoxin toxicity is anorexia, not bruising, metallic taste, or muscle pain. Other symptoms of digoxin toxicity include blurred vision, stomach pain, and diarrhea. It is crucial for healthcare providers to promptly identify these signs to prevent severe complications.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine to a client for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare provider's priority?

• A. Respiratory rate
• B. Pain level
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Level of consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority assessment for a healthcare provider preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine is the client's respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression as a significant adverse effect, so monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory compromise and intervene promptly. Assessing the respiratory rate takes precedence over other assessments because respiratory depression can lead to serious complications. While pain level, blood pressure, and level of consciousness are important assessments, they are not the priority when administering Morphine, as the risk of respiratory depression is a more immediate concern.

5. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client with brain cancer experiencing headaches. Which of the following adjuvant medications is indicated for this client?

• A. Dexamethasone
• B. Methylphenidate
• C. Hydroxyzine
• D. Amitriptyline

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dexamethasone, a glucocorticoid, is indicated for clients with brain cancer experiencing headaches as it decreases inflammation and swelling. It is commonly used to reduce cerebral edema and relieve pressure caused by the tumor. Methylphenidate (Choice B) is a central nervous system stimulant used in conditions like ADHD and narcolepsy, not for brain cancer headaches. Hydroxyzine (Choice C) is an antihistamine used for anxiety and allergic conditions, not indicated for brain cancer headaches. Amitriptyline (Choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant used for depression, neuropathic pain, and migraine prophylaxis, but not typically indicated for brain cancer headaches.

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