ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A client is receiving discharge instructions following a stroke. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid using aspirin for pain.
- B. I will consume dairy products to increase my calcium intake.
- C. I will drink 1.5 to 2 liters of fluid each day.
- D. I will need to limit my intake of fiber.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Avoiding aspirin is crucial for this client as it can increase the risk of bleeding after a stroke. Choice B about consuming dairy products for calcium intake is not directly related to stroke management. Choice C regarding fluid intake is a good practice for overall health but not specifically related to stroke care. Choice D about limiting fiber intake is not typically a concern after a stroke unless there are specific complications that warrant it.
2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect to be elevated?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum calcium.
- C. Serum glucose.
- D. Serum amylase.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Serum amylase levels are typically elevated in clients with acute pancreatitis as it is an enzyme released by the pancreas. Elevated serum sodium, calcium, or glucose levels are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.
3. A client with a pulmonary embolism is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.
- B. Place the client in a prone position.
- C. Administer anticoagulants as prescribed.
- D. Initiate seizure precautions.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering anticoagulants as prescribed is a crucial intervention for clients with pulmonary embolism to prevent further clot formation. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently may dislodge the clot and lead to worsening symptoms. Placing the client in a prone position can compromise respiratory function. Initiating seizure precautions is not directly related to the management of pulmonary embolism.
4. What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer bronchodilators
- C. Administer IV fluids
- D. Provide humidified air
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress because it helps improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress. Oxygen therapy is a critical and priority intervention in such cases as it aims to increase oxygen levels in the blood. Administering bronchodilators may be beneficial for specific respiratory conditions like asthma or COPD, but oxygen should be the initial priority. Administering IV fluids and providing humidified air, while important in certain situations, are not the primary interventions for respiratory distress.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.
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