Nursing Elites

1. A client in end-stage osteoporosis is reporting severe pain, with a respiratory rate of 14 per minute. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to be the highest priority to administer to the client?

• A. Promethazine
• B. Hydromorphone
• C. Ketorolac
• D. Amitriptyline

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with severe pain like the one described, the priority medication to administer is a potent analgesic like hydromorphone. Hydromorphone is a strong opioid pain medication that can effectively manage severe pain. Promethazine (Choice A) is an antiemetic and antihistamine, not a pain medication. Ketorolac (Choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is contraindicated in end-stage renal disease due to its potential to cause kidney damage. Amitriptyline (Choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant used for conditions like depression and neuropathic pain, but it is not the first-line treatment for severe acute pain.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who had gastric bypass surgery 1 week ago and has signs of early dumping syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Facial flushing
• B. Syncope
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Facial flushing is a common symptom of early dumping syndrome, which occurs when food moves too quickly into the small intestine. This rapid movement triggers the release of vasoactive peptides causing vasodilation, leading to facial flushing. Syncope (choice B) is not a typical finding in early dumping syndrome. Diaphoresis (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic symptoms of early dumping syndrome.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following an open reduction and internal fixation of the right tibia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serous drainage on the dressing
• B. Capillary refill of 2 seconds
• C. Heart rate of 88/min
• D. Pallor of the affected extremity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pallor of the affected extremity could indicate impaired circulation, such as compromised blood flow to the area, which is crucial to monitor postoperatively. This finding suggests potential vascular compromise or decreased blood supply to the extremity, which is a serious concern and should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and intervention. Serous drainage on the dressing is a normal finding in the immediate postoperative period and does not necessarily indicate a complication requiring immediate provider notification. Capillary refill of 2 seconds is within the normal range (less than 3 seconds) and indicates adequate peripheral perfusion. A heart rate of 88/min is also within the normal range for an adult and is not typically a cause for immediate concern postoperatively.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin IV to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication over 30 minutes.
• B. Monitor the client for a decrease in blood pressure during administration.
• C. Assess the IV site for infiltration during administration.
• D. Premedicate the client with an antiemetic prior to administration.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering vancomycin IV is to assess the IV site for infiltration during administration. Vancomycin is known to cause tissue damage if it infiltrates, making close monitoring crucial. Administering the medication over 30 minutes (Choice A) is a common practice but not the priority in preventing infiltration. Monitoring for a decrease in blood pressure (Choice B) is not directly related to vancomycin administration. Premedicating with an antiemetic (Choice D) is not typically required for vancomycin administration.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. You should avoid consuming foods high in vitamin K.
• B. Take this medication at the same time each day.
• C. Monitor for signs of bruising and bleeding.
• D. Have your INR checked every 4 weeks.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to advise the client to avoid consuming foods high in vitamin K. Foods rich in vitamin K, such as leafy greens, can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. Therefore, it is important for clients on warfarin therapy to maintain consistent vitamin K intake to keep their INR levels stable. The other options are also important but not the priority in the context of warfarin therapy. Ingesting foods high in vitamin K can affect the medication's efficacy, making it crucial to highlight this dietary consideration during client education.

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