a nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following a laminectomy which of the following interventions should the nurse include in th
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam RN

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following a laminectomy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ambulating the client on the first postoperative day is crucial to prevent complications like deep vein thrombosis and aid in the recovery process. Elevating the legs while in bed can help with circulation but is not as effective in preventing complications related to immobility post-surgery. Repositioning every 2 hours is important for preventing pressure ulcers but does not directly address postoperative care. Maintaining bed rest for the first 24 hours postoperatively can increase the risk of complications associated with immobility, making early ambulation a more appropriate intervention.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. 1+ protein in the urine is indicative of worsening preeclampsia and should be reported to the provider immediately. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is expected in preeclampsia, but a reading of 120/80 mm Hg is within the normal range. A respiratory rate of 16/min (choice B) and a heart rate of 88/min (choice D) are also within normal limits and not indicative of worsening preeclampsia.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is requesting combination oral contraceptives. Which of the following conditions in the client's history is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thrombophlebitis is a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of complications such as thromboembolism. Hyperthyroidism, diverticulosis, and hypocalcemia are not contraindications for oral contraceptives. Hyperthyroidism may affect the metabolism of contraceptives but does not contraindicate their use. Diverticulosis and hypocalcemia do not directly impact the safety or effectiveness of oral contraceptives.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving heparin to treat deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A platelet count of 80,000/mm3 is below the normal range and should be reported to the provider due to the risk of bleeding. Heparin can cause a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, leading to a decrease in platelet count and an increased risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 38 seconds, hemoglobin of 15 g/dL, and an INR of 1.0 are within normal ranges and not directly concerning in this scenario. Platelet count is crucial to monitor in clients receiving heparin therapy to ensure adequate clotting function and prevent bleeding complications.

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