ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam RN
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following a laminectomy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Elevate the client's legs while in bed.
- B. Reposition the client every 2 hours.
- C. Maintain bed rest for the first 24 hours postoperatively.
- D. Ambulate the client on the first postoperative day.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ambulating the client on the first postoperative day is crucial to prevent complications like deep vein thrombosis and aid in the recovery process. Elevating the legs while in bed can help with circulation but is not as effective in preventing complications related to immobility post-surgery. Repositioning every 2 hours is important for preventing pressure ulcers but does not directly address postoperative care. Maintaining bed rest for the first 24 hours postoperatively can increase the risk of complications associated with immobility, making early ambulation a more appropriate intervention.
2. A client receiving morphine via patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) should have naloxone administered if their respiratory rate is below 10/min. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 4 hours.
- B. Ask the client to rate their pain every 2 hours.
- C. Administer naloxone if the client's respiratory rate is below 10/min.
- D. Evaluate the client's use of the PCA every 4 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer naloxone if the client's respiratory rate falls below 10/min. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a life-threatening situation. Monitoring the client's blood pressure every 4 hours (Choice A) is not the priority in this scenario as respiratory depression requires immediate attention. Asking the client to rate their pain every 2 hours (Choice B) is important for pain management but addressing respiratory depression takes precedence. Evaluating the client's use of the PCA every 4 hours (Choice D) is a routine nursing intervention but does not directly address the urgent need to reverse respiratory depression in this case.
3. A nurse is administering digoxin 0.125 mg Po to an adult client. For which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium level 4.2 mEq/L
- B. Apical pulse 58/min
- C. Digoxin level 1 ng/ml
- D. Constipation for 2 days
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. An apical pulse below 60/min indicates bradycardia, a potential sign of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the digoxin dose. Choice A, a potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L, is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and does not indicate toxicity. Choice C, a digoxin level of 1 ng/ml, is within the therapeutic range (0.5-2 ng/ml) and is not suggestive of toxicity. Choice D, constipation for 2 days, is not directly related to digoxin administration and would not require an immediate report to the provider.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare provider to report?
- A. Crackles in the lung bases
- B. Blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg
- C. Respiratory rate of 26/min
- D. Heart rate of 86/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26/min is a sign of respiratory distress and should be reported promptly in a client with pneumonia. Rapid breathing can indicate inadequate oxygenation and ventilation, which may lead to respiratory failure. Crackles in the lung bases are common in pneumonia but may not be as urgent as a high respiratory rate. A blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg is slightly low but may not be immediately life-threatening. A heart rate of 86/min is within the normal range for an adult and is not the most critical finding to report.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Bowel sounds present in all four quadrants
- B. Temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F)
- C. Scant urine output
- D. Serosanguineous wound drainage
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Serosanguineous wound drainage.' Serosanguineous drainage should be reported in postoperative clients as it may indicate complications such as infection or impaired wound healing. Options A, B, and C are expected findings in a postoperative client. Bowel sounds present in all four quadrants indicate normal gastrointestinal function, a temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F) is within the normal range, and scant urine output may be expected initially due to factors like anesthesia and fluid shifts postoperatively.
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