a nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following a laminectomy which of the following interventions should the nurse include in th a nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following a laminectomy which of the following interventions should the nurse include in th
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ATI Exit Exam RN

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following a laminectomy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ambulating the client on the first postoperative day is crucial to prevent complications like deep vein thrombosis and aid in the recovery process. Elevating the legs while in bed can help with circulation but is not as effective in preventing complications related to immobility post-surgery. Repositioning every 2 hours is important for preventing pressure ulcers but does not directly address postoperative care. Maintaining bed rest for the first 24 hours postoperatively can increase the risk of complications associated with immobility, making early ambulation a more appropriate intervention.

2. During assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client with chronic bronchitis. Which of the following percussion sounds should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: B: Resonance

Rationale: In a client with chronic bronchitis, the nurse or healthcare provider would expect to hear resonant sounds upon percussion. Resonance is the normal percussion sound heard over healthy lung tissue. The other options such as dullness, tympany, and flatness are associated with different conditions or abnormalities, not typically expected in chronic bronchitis.

3. A patient with a complex medical history is considering the use of oral contraceptives. The nurse should be aware that many antibiotics and antiseizure medications cause what effect when combined with oral contraceptives?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of pregnancy. Certain antibiotics and anticonvulsants can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives by inducing liver enzymes that metabolize the hormones more quickly. This interaction can lead to a decreased contraceptive effect, thereby increasing the risk of pregnancy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the effect of antibiotics and antiseizure medications on oral contraceptives.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on diuretics?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Patients on diuretics are at risk of developing hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion by the kidneys. Hypokalemia can lead to serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Hyponatremia (choice B) is an imbalance of sodium levels and is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is the opposite condition where potassium levels are elevated and is less common in patients on diuretics. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is an excess of calcium in the blood and is not directly related to diuretic use. Therefore, monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial in patients taking diuretics.

5. The healthcare provider is providing medication education to a patient who has been prescribed lithium to stabilize mood. Which early signs and symptoms of toxicity should the healthcare provider stress to the patient? Select one that does not apply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Early signs of lithium toxicity include gastrointestinal upset, tremors, increased urination, and increased thirst. Improved vision is not a typical early sign of lithium toxicity and should be ruled out as a symptom to watch for.

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