Nursing Elites

1. When should a newborn transition to whole milk according to dietary teaching for breastfeeding parents?

• A. 6 months
• B. 8 months
• C. 10 months
• D. 12 months

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Breast milk or formula should be the primary source of nutrition for infants up to around 1 year of age. The transition to whole cow's milk is recommended at 12 months of age, not earlier. Introducing whole milk before 12 months can lead to digestive issues and nutrient deficiencies. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they suggest transitioning to whole milk before the recommended age of 12 months.

2. After surgery Leda develops peripheral numbness, tingling and muscle twitching and spasm. What would you anticipate to administer?

• A. Magnesium sulfate C. Potassium iodide
• B. Calcium gluconate D. Potassium chloride
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Understanding the underlying pathology and therapeutic techniques ensures that nursing care is not only reactive but also preventative, reducing the risk of complications.

3. During blood administration, what is essential for the nurse to do in order to carefully monitor for adverse reactions?

• A. Stay with the client for the first 15 minutes of blood administration
• B. Stay with the client for the entire period of blood administration
• C. Run the infusion at a faster rate during the first 15 minutes
• D. Inform the client to notify the staff immediately for any adverse reaction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the context of blood administration, it's crucial for the nurse to stay with the client for the first 15 minutes. This is because most adverse reactions are likely to occur within this initial period. Monitoring the client closely during this time allows for immediate detection and response to any potential reactions. Choice B, staying with the client for the entire period of blood administration, is not typically feasible or necessary, although regular checks should be conducted. Running the infusion at a faster rate during the first 15 minutes (Choice C) is incorrect as this can actually increase the risk of adverse reactions. Informing the client to notify the staff immediately for any adverse reaction (Choice D) is an important practice, but it is not the most direct way for the nurse to monitor for adverse reactions.

4. What is the function of villi and microvilli in the GI tract?

• A. produce bile
• B. kill bacteria
• C. produce vitamin K
• D. increase the surface area for absorption

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Villi and microvilli in the GI tract serve to increase the surface area of the small intestine, aiding in the absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as villi and microvilli are primarily involved in enhancing absorption, not in producing bile, killing bacteria, or producing vitamin K.

5. What does oliguria lead to in patients with acute kidney injury?

• A. Hypophosphatemia and overgrowth of bone tissue
• B. An increase in blood potassium levels due to excessive excretion of parathyroid hormone
• C. Sodium retention and elevated levels of potassium
• D. Edema due to increased urine production

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In patients with acute kidney injury, oliguria (reduced urine output) often results in sodium retention and hyperkalemia (elevated levels of potassium). This is due to the kidneys' decreased capacity to excrete these substances. Choice A is incorrect because hypophosphatemia and overgrowth of bone tissue are not direct consequences of oliguria in acute kidney injury. Choice B is incorrect because an increase in blood potassium levels is not caused by excessive excretion of parathyroid hormone but rather by decreased excretion of potassium. Choice D is incorrect because edema is not caused by increased urine production but rather by fluid overload due to decreased urine output.

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