how should a nurse monitor a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis dvt
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way for a healthcare provider to monitor a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to check for leg swelling. Leg swelling is a common symptom of DVT and monitoring for this sign is crucial for early detection and intervention. Encouraging ambulation may be beneficial for preventing DVT but is not the recommended method for monitoring an existing condition. Checking for redness may be useful in cases of superficial thrombophlebitis but is not specific to DVT. Monitoring oxygen saturation is more relevant for respiratory or cardiovascular conditions, not for DVT.

2. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient who is experiencing acute pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Administering prescribed analgesics is the most effective way to manage acute pain. Analgesics help in reducing or eliminating pain quickly and efficiently. Repositioning the patient may be helpful in certain cases to relieve discomfort, but it is not the primary intervention for managing acute pain. Non-pharmacological interventions can be beneficial as adjuncts to pain management, but in cases of acute pain, administering analgesics is the priority. Administering IV fluids may be necessary for certain conditions but is not the primary intervention for managing acute pain.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with patients on furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide use due to its mechanism of action in the kidneys. Hyponatremia (choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not common electrolyte imbalances seen with furosemide use.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An INR of 3.0 is elevated, indicating impaired blood clotting function, which poses a significant risk of bleeding in clients with cirrhosis. This finding should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A (Albumin 3.5 g/dL) is within the normal range and indicates adequate liver synthetic function, so it does not require immediate reporting. Choice B (Bilirubin 1.0 mg/dL) is also within the normal range and typically seen in clients without significant liver dysfunction, so it does not need urgent attention. Choice D (Ammonia 80 mcg/dL) is elevated, but it is not the priority finding in cirrhosis; elevated ammonia levels are associated with hepatic encephalopathy rather than increased bleeding risk.

5. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so increasing potassium-rich foods helps prevent hypokalemia. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is unrelated to furosemide therapy. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to limit calcium-rich foods while taking furosemide.

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