Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?

• A. Administer bronchodilators
• B. Monitor oxygen saturation
• C. Provide supplemental oxygen
• D. Start IV fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer bronchodilators. In an acute asthma attack, the priority is to open the airways and improve airflow. Bronchodilators like albuterol are crucial in providing immediate relief to the patient. Monitoring oxygen saturation (choice B) is important but administering bronchodilators takes precedence in managing the acute attack. Providing supplemental oxygen (choice C) may be necessary but addressing the airway obstruction with bronchodilators is the priority. Starting IV fluids (choice D) is not the priority in an acute asthma attack unless specifically indicated for other reasons such as dehydration.

2. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

• A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
• B. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
• C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
• D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease are at risk for aspiration due to the potential of regurgitation, which can lead to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Choice B (receiving a high-osmolarity formula) can lead to issues like diarrhea or dehydration but is not directly related to aspiration. Choice C (sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding) is actually a preventive measure to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D (a residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding) is a concern for delayed gastric emptying but not a direct risk factor for aspiration.

3. A parent is being taught by a nurse how to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which statement by the parent indicates an understanding of how to place the infant in the crib at bedtime?

• A. Place the infant on their stomach to sleep.
• B. Place the infant on their side to sleep.
• C. Place the infant on their back to sleep.
• D. Allow the infant to sleep with a pacifier.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Place the infant on their back to sleep.' This statement indicates an understanding of the recommended sleep position to reduce the risk of SIDS. Placing infants on their back is the safest sleep position according to guidelines to prevent SIDS. Choices A and B are incorrect as placing the infant on their stomach or side increases the risk of SIDS. While allowing the infant to sleep with a pacifier can also reduce the risk of SIDS, the most crucial step is placing the infant on their back for sleep.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 15 degrees.
• B. Change the feeding bag every 48 hours.
• C. Administer the feeding through a large-bore syringe.
• D. Flush the tube with 0.9% sodium chloride every 4 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to flush the tube with 0.9% sodium chloride every 4 hours. This helps maintain patency and prevents clogs during enteral feedings. Keeping the head of the bed elevated to 15 degrees (Choice A) is important for preventing aspiration but is not directly related to tube care. Changing the feeding bag every 48 hours (Choice B) is not a standard practice as the bag should be changed every 24 hours to prevent bacterial growth. Administering the feeding through a large-bore syringe (Choice C) is incorrect as enteral feedings should be given through an appropriate feeding pump for accuracy and safety.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?

• A. White blood cell count of 4,500/mm³
• B. Hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL
• C. Platelet count of 90,000/mm³
• D. Serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A platelet count of 90,000/mm³ indicates thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding and requires immediate intervention. Thrombocytopenia can lead to serious bleeding complications, so it is crucial to address this finding promptly. A low white blood cell count (choice A) may indicate neutropenia but is not as immediately life-threatening as severe thrombocytopenia. A hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL (choice B) would require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing a critically low platelet count. A serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L (choice D) is on the lower side of normal but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's safety compared to severe thrombocytopenia.

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