Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing care for a patient with major depressive disorder who is prescribed a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which common side effect should the healthcare provider educate the patient about?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common side effect associated with tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs). TCAs can cause anticholinergic side effects, such as dry mouth, due to their mechanism of action. Educating the patient about dry mouth can help them stay informed and manage this common side effect effectively during treatment. Hypertension (Choice A) is not a common side effect of TCAs. Diarrhea (Choice B) is more commonly associated with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) than with TCAs. Weight loss (Choice D) is not a common side effect of TCAs; in fact, TCAs are more likely to cause weight gain.

2. A client has experienced the death of a close family member and at the same time becomes unemployed. This situation has resulted in a 6-month score of 110 on the Recent Life Changes Questionnaire. How should the nurse evaluate this client data?

• A. The client is experiencing severe distress and is at risk for physical and psychological illness.
• B. A score of 110 on the Miller and Rahe Recent Life Changes Questionnaire indicates no significant threat of stress-related illness.
• C. Susceptibility to stress-related physical or psychological illness cannot be estimated without knowledge of coping resources and available supports.
• D. The client may view these losses as challenges and perceive them as opportunities.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Recent Life Changes Questionnaire is an expanded version of the Schedule of Recent Experiences and the Rahe-Holmes Social Readjustment Rating Scale. A 6-month score of 300 or more, or a year-score total of 500 or more, indicates high stress in a client's life. However, susceptibility to stress-related physical or psychological illness cannot be accurately estimated without considering the individual's coping resources and available support systems. Positive coping mechanisms and strong social support can mitigate the risk of stress-related illnesses even in the face of significant life changes and losses. Choice A is incorrect because it makes a definitive statement about the client's state without considering individual coping mechanisms and support. Choice B is incorrect because a score of 110 does not necessarily mean no threat of stress-related illness, as individual factors play a crucial role. Choice D is incorrect as it assumes a positive outlook without acknowledging the potential impact of the experienced losses on stress levels.

3. During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?

• A. Chlorpromazine
• B. Phenelzine
• C. Haloperidol
• D. Olanzapine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.

4. Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient with a phobia of flying?

• A. Exposure therapy
• B. Cognitive restructuring
• C. Medication management
• D. Psychoeducation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exposure therapy is considered the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a phobia of flying. This therapeutic approach involves gradually exposing the individual to the feared stimulus, in this case, flying, in a controlled and supportive environment. By facing the fear in a structured manner, the patient can learn to manage their anxiety response and eventually reduce their phobia-related symptoms. While cognitive restructuring may help change negative thought patterns and medication management can alleviate symptoms, exposure therapy is specifically designed to address phobias through systematic desensitization, making it the most suitable intervention in this scenario. Psychoeducation aims to provide information and support but may not directly target the phobia itself.

5. When evaluating a client's progress in psychotherapy, which outcome is appropriate for the client?

• A. The client will identify triggers for anxiety.
• B. The client will develop coping strategies.
• C. The client will decrease avoidance behaviors.
• D. The client will express feelings of anger.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In psychotherapy, identifying triggers for anxiety is a crucial step towards understanding and managing one's anxiety symptoms. By recognizing these triggers, clients can work on developing coping strategies and addressing the root cause of their anxiety, leading to improved mental health outcomes. Decreasing avoidance behaviors and expressing feelings of anger are also important aspects of therapy. However, identifying triggers for anxiety is a more specific and foundational goal in addressing anxiety disorders, making it the most appropriate outcome to evaluate a client's progress in psychotherapy.

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