ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Practice A
1. A healthcare provider is providing care for a patient with major depressive disorder who is prescribed a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which common side effect should the healthcare provider educate the patient about?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dry mouth is a common side effect associated with tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs). TCAs can cause anticholinergic side effects, such as dry mouth, due to their mechanism of action. Educating the patient about dry mouth can help them stay informed and manage this common side effect effectively during treatment. Hypertension (Choice A) is not a common side effect of TCAs. Diarrhea (Choice B) is more commonly associated with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) than with TCAs. Weight loss (Choice D) is not a common side effect of TCAs; in fact, TCAs are more likely to cause weight gain.
2. How do psychiatrists determine which diagnosis to give a patient?
- A. Psychiatrists use pre-established criteria from the APA's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5).
- B. Hospital policy dictates how psychiatrists diagnose mental disorders.
- C. Psychiatrists assess the patient and identify diagnoses based on the patient's symptoms and contributing factors.
- D. The American Medical Association identifies 10 diagnostic labels that psychiatrists can choose from.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Psychiatrists use pre-established criteria from the APA's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) to determine which diagnosis to give a patient. The DSM-5 is a comprehensive manual published by the American Psychiatric Association (APA) that outlines specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders. It aims to ensure accurate and consistent diagnosis and treatment. Choices B and D provide inaccurate information. Hospital policy does not dictate psychiatric diagnoses, and the American Medical Association does not provide diagnostic labels for mental disorders. Choice C, although mentioning the assessment of patients, does not highlight the specific criteria and guidelines provided by the DSM-5 that psychiatrists use to assign diagnoses.
3. A client has been diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and is having nightmares about the event. The client reports difficulty sleeping at night. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Encourage the client to talk about the event during the day.
- B. Encourage the client to avoid caffeine and alcohol.
- C. Administer a prescribed sedative at bedtime.
- D. Schedule a follow-up appointment with the client's therapist.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The initial action the nurse should take is to encourage the client to talk about the traumatic event during the day. This approach can assist the client in processing the trauma in a controlled environment, potentially reducing the frequency and intensity of nightmares. It allows for emotional expression and may promote better sleep by addressing the underlying psychological distress associated with PTSD. Encouraging the client to talk about the event during the day promotes therapeutic processing of the trauma and emotional expression, which can lead to improved coping mechanisms and potentially decrease the distressing symptoms like nightmares. Encouraging the client to avoid caffeine and alcohol may be beneficial, but addressing the emotional aspects first is crucial. Administering a sedative should not be the first approach, as it does not address the root cause of the nightmares. Scheduling a follow-up appointment with the therapist is important but should follow addressing the immediate distressing symptoms and promoting coping strategies.
4. Which of the following interventions is inappropriate for a client experiencing a panic attack?
- A. Provide a well-lit environment.
- B. Encourage deep breathing.
- C. Move the client to a quiet environment.
- D. Administer prescribed antianxiety medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During a panic attack, a well-lit environment might exacerbate the client's symptoms due to sensory overload. Therefore, it is inappropriate to provide a well-lit environment during a panic attack. Encouraging deep breathing, moving the client to a quiet environment, and administering prescribed antianxiety medication are appropriate interventions for managing a panic attack. These actions help create a calming atmosphere and address the physiological symptoms associated with panic attacks.
5. A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect to observe during withdrawal? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Tremors
- B. Hallucinations
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During alcohol withdrawal, symptoms such as tremors, hallucinations, diaphoresis, and seizures are commonly observed. Bradycardia is not typically associated with alcohol withdrawal; instead, tachycardia, an increased heart rate, is more commonly seen. Therefore, bradycardia is the correct answer as it is not an expected symptom during alcohol withdrawal. Tremors, hallucinations, and diaphoresis are all common manifestations of alcohol withdrawal, while bradycardia is not typically seen in this context.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access