Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital. Which assessment finding would indicate early alcohol withdrawal?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Hypothermia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client experiencing early alcohol withdrawal, one of the key assessment findings is diaphoresis (excessive sweating). This is due to autonomic hyperactivity commonly seen during this phase, along with other signs like tremors and tachycardia. Bradycardia (slow heart rate), hypotension (low blood pressure), and hypothermia (low body temperature) are not typically associated with early alcohol withdrawal, making them incorrect choices.

2. A nurse is providing education to the family of a client who has been diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Encourage the client to avoid caffeine.
• B. Encourage the client to participate in physical activity.
• C. Encourage the client to express their feelings.
• D. Encourage the client to avoid isolation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the family to encourage the client to avoid isolation. Social support and interaction are crucial for individuals with major depressive disorder as it can help in improving mood, reducing feelings of loneliness, and providing a sense of belonging and support. Choices A, B, and C are not the most appropriate instructions for a client with major depressive disorder. While avoiding caffeine can be beneficial for some individuals with anxiety or sleep issues, it is not a primary intervention for major depressive disorder. Encouraging physical activity and expressing feelings are important aspects of managing depression, but avoiding isolation is more critical to address first.

3. Ted, a former executive, is now unemployed due to manic episodes at work. He was diagnosed with bipolar I 8 years ago. Ted has a history of IV drug abuse, which resulted in hepatitis C. He is taking his lithium exactly as scheduled, a fact that both Ted's wife and his blood tests confirm. To reduce Ted's mania, the psychiatric nurse practitioner recommends:

• A. Clonazepam (Klonopin)
• B. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
• C. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
• D. Lurasidone (Latuda)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) can be an effective treatment for reducing mania in patients with bipolar disorder who have not responded to medication. In Ted's case, where he has a history of bipolar I disorder, lithium treatment, and manic episodes, ECT may be recommended by the psychiatric nurse practitioner to help manage his symptoms.

4. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Ask the client to describe the content of the hallucinations.
• B. Instruct the client to ignore the hallucinations.
• C. Administer prescribed antipsychotic medication.
• D. Engage the client in reality-based activities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The initial intervention for a client experiencing auditory hallucinations, especially in schizophrenia, is to assess the content of the hallucinations. By asking the client to describe the hallucinations, the nurse can determine if they are command hallucinations that might pose a risk. This assessment is crucial in guiding further appropriate interventions to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Instructing the client to ignore the hallucinations (Choice B) may not be effective, as the hallucinations are real to the client. Administering antipsychotic medication (Choice C) may be necessary but should come after assessing the situation. Engaging the client in reality-based activities (Choice D) is important but not the first priority when dealing with auditory hallucinations.

5. A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?

• A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
• B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
• C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
• D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms help individuals reduce anxiety during times of stress. It is crucial for the nurse to understand that defense mechanisms serve a purpose and can be a normal part of coping. However, if defense mechanisms significantly hinder the client's ability to develop healthy coping skills, they should be addressed and explored. Eliminating defense mechanisms entirely without considering the individual's overall coping strategies can be counterproductive and may lead to increased distress for the client. Choice B is incorrect because not all defense mechanisms are maladaptive; some can be adaptive and helpful. Choice C is incorrect because labeling individuals as having weak ego integrity based on their use of defense mechanisms is stigmatizing and oversimplified. Choice D is incorrect because fostering and encouraging defense mechanisms without differentiation can lead to maladaptive behaviors and reliance on these mechanisms instead of healthier coping strategies.

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