Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing care for a patient with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which therapeutic intervention is most effective for this condition?

• A. Group therapy
• B. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• C. Psychoanalysis
• D. Family therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is the most effective therapeutic intervention for managing ADHD symptoms. CBT helps individuals with ADHD develop coping strategies, improve focus, organization, and time management skills, and address behavioral challenges effectively. Group therapy might not provide the specific skills training needed for ADHD management. Psychoanalysis focuses on exploring deeper unconscious processes and may not be as practical for addressing ADHD symptoms. Family therapy can be beneficial for family dynamics but may not directly target individual ADHD symptoms as effectively as CBT.

2. A female patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has been prescribed a first-generation antipsychotic medication. What information should the nurse provide to the patient regarding her signs and symptoms?

• A. Her memory problems will likely decrease.
• B. Depressive episodes should be less severe.
• C. She will probably enjoy social interactions more.
• D. She should experience a reduction in hallucinations.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: First-generation antipsychotic medications are effective in reducing hallucinations in patients with schizophrenia. These medications primarily target positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. Therefore, the nurse should inform the patient that she should experience a reduction in hallucinations with the prescribed first-generation antipsychotic medication.

3. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?

• A. Provide a structured environment with minimal stimuli.
• B. Monitor the client closely for signs of exhaustion.
• C. Encourage the client to rest and sleep as needed.
• D. Encourage the client to engage in regular physical activity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a manic episode in bipolar disorder, individuals may exhibit increased energy levels, impulsivity, and reduced need for sleep, which can lead to risky behaviors and accidents. Providing a structured environment with minimal stimuli helps to reduce the risk of overstimulation and impulsive actions, thereby promoting the client's safety. This intervention aims to create a calm and controlled setting that can prevent potential harm to the client during this phase of the disorder.

4. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

5. Which client statement indicates an understanding of the education provided about the antidepressant medication sertraline (Zoloft)?

• A. I should take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. It may take several weeks for this medication to be effective.
• C. I can stop taking this medication when I feel better.
• D. I should avoid taking this medication with other medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. It is crucial for clients to understand that sertraline (Zoloft) may take several weeks to show its full effects. Patients should be informed about this delay in onset of action to set realistic expectations and adhere to the treatment plan. This education helps prevent premature discontinuation of the medication due to perceived lack of efficacy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because sertraline (Zoloft) should be taken with food to reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect because abruptly stopping the medication can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Choice D is inaccurate as there are specific medications that should be avoided with sertraline, but a general statement to avoid all other medications is overly broad and not necessary.

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