ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023
1. Which intervention is particularly well chosen for addressing a population at high risk for developing schizophrenia?
- A. Screening a group of males aged 15 to 25 for early symptoms.
- B. Forming a support group for females aged 25 to 35 with substance use issues.
- C. Providing coping skills information to a group aged 45 to 55.
- D. Educating parents of developmentally delayed 5- to 6-year-olds on early intervention importance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Screening males aged 15 to 25 for early symptoms of schizophrenia is a well-chosen intervention as this age group is at a higher risk for developing the condition. Early identification can lead to timely treatment and better outcomes, making this intervention particularly effective in addressing the population at risk for schizophrenia.
2. A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine. Which potential side effect requires regular monitoring?
- A. Weight loss
- B. Hypertension
- C. Agranulocytosis
- D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient with schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine, regular monitoring for agranulocytosis is essential. Agranulocytosis is a severe reduction in white blood cells that can be life-threatening. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this side effect early and prevent serious complications. Weight loss (Choice A) is not a common side effect of clozapine. Hypertension (Choice B) and hyperthyroidism (Choice D) are also not typically associated with clozapine use, making them incorrect choices for regular monitoring.
3. April, a 10-year-old admitted to inpatient pediatric care, has been getting more and more wound up and is losing self-control in the day room. Time-out does not appear to be an effective tool for April to engage in self-reflection. April's mother admits to putting her in time-out up to 20 times a day. The nurse recognizes that:
- A. Time-out is an important part of April's baseline discipline.
- B. Time-out is no longer an effective therapeutic measure.
- C. April enjoys time-out, and acts out to get some alone time.
- D. Time-out will need to be replaced with seclusion and restraint.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Frequent use of time-out has reduced its effectiveness as a therapeutic measure for April.
4. In evaluating a client's response to stress, what would indicate a secondary appraisal of the stressful event?
- A. When the individual judges the event to be benign
- B. When the individual judges the event to be irrelevant
- C. When the individual judges the resources and skills needed to deal with the event
- D. When the individual judges the event to be pleasurable
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A secondary appraisal occurs when an individual evaluates the resources and skills required to cope with a stressful event. This type of appraisal focuses on the person's perceived ability to manage the situation. In contrast, choices A, B, and D do not involve the assessment of resources and skills. Choice A relates to a benign judgment of the event, choice B to an irrelevant judgment, and choice D to a pleasurable judgment, which are aspects of primary rather than secondary appraisals.
5. A patient with major depressive disorder is being treated with electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). The nurse should monitor the patient for which common side effect?
- A. Memory loss
- B. Hypertension
- C. Weight gain
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Memory loss, especially short-term memory loss, is a common side effect associated with electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). During ECT treatment, the electrical currents passed through the brain can disrupt short-term memory formation. This side effect is usually temporary, but patients should be closely monitored for any changes in memory function during and after the treatment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not commonly associated with ECT. Hypertension, weight gain, and hyperglycemia are not typically observed as side effects of ECT.
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