Nursing Elites

1. After auscultating a client's breath sounds, the nurse is providing care. Which finding is correctly matched to the nurse's primary intervention?

• A. Hollow sounds are heard over the trachea. The nurse increases the oxygen flow rate.
• B. Crackles are heard in bases. The nurse encourages the client to cough forcefully.
• C. Wheezes are heard in central areas. The nurse administers an inhaled bronchodilator.
• D. Vesicular sounds are heard over the periphery. The nurse has the client breathe deeply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Wheezes are indicative of narrowed airways, and bronchodilators help to open the air passages, making option C the correct match. Wheezes are typically heard in the central or peripheral lung areas and are associated with conditions like asthma or COPD. Inhaled bronchodilators work by dilating the bronchioles, which helps alleviate wheezing and improve airflow. Therefore, administering an inhaled bronchodilator is the appropriate intervention in response to wheezes.

2. A client presents with shortness of breath, pain in the lung area, and a recent history of starting birth control pills and smoking. Vital signs include a heart rate of 110/min, respiratory rate of 40/min, and blood pressure of 140/80 mm Hg. Arterial blood gases reveal pH 7.50, PaCO2 29 mm Hg, PaO2 60 mm Hg, HCO3 20 mEq/L, and SaO2 86%. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Prepare for mechanical ventilation.
• B. Administer oxygen via face mask.
• C. Prepare to administer a sedative.
• D. Assess for indications of pulmonary embolism.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a high respiratory rate, low PaO2, and low SaO2, the priority intervention is to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen via a face mask will help increase the oxygen supply to the client's lungs and tissues, addressing the hypoxemia. While mechanical ventilation may be necessary in severe cases, administering oxygen is the initial and most appropriate intervention to address the client's respiratory distress. Sedatives should not be given without ensuring adequate oxygenation. Assessing for pulmonary embolism is important but not the priority at this moment when the client is experiencing respiratory distress and hypoxemia.

3. A client is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client is able to ambulate in the hall without dyspnea.
• B. The client has a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute.
• C. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• D. The client has a productive cough.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective oxygen therapy should improve the client's ability to perform activities without dyspnea. This indicates that the oxygen therapy is adequately supporting the client's respiratory needs. An oxygen saturation of 92% may suggest the need for a higher flow rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is elevated, indicating potential respiratory distress. A productive cough does not necessarily indicate effective oxygen therapy, as it is a symptom of respiratory irritation or infection, not oxygenation status.

4. A client in an emergency department has a sucking chest wound resulting from a gunshot. The client has a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, a weak pulse rate of 118/min, and a respiratory rate of 40/min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Raise the foot of the bed to a 90� angle
• B. Remove the dressing to inspect the wound
• C. Prepare to insert a central line
• D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a sucking chest wound, the priority is to administer oxygen via nasal cannula to improve oxygenation. The client's blood pressure, weak pulse rate, and elevated respiratory rate indicate hypovolemic shock, so increasing oxygen supply is crucial. Raising the foot of the bed, removing the dressing, or preparing to insert a central line are not immediate actions needed for a client with a sucking chest wound and signs of shock.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with rheumatoid arthritis. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of this disease?

• A. Asymmetrical joint involvement
• B. Heberden's nodes
• C. Morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes
• D. Pain that worsens with activity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes is a hallmark symptom of rheumatoid arthritis. This prolonged morning stiffness is typically a distinguishing feature of rheumatoid arthritis compared to other types of arthritis, making it the most characteristic assessment finding for this disease.

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