Nursing Elites

1. After auscultating a client's breath sounds, the nurse is providing care. Which finding is correctly matched to the nurse's primary intervention?

• A. Hollow sounds are heard over the trachea. The nurse increases the oxygen flow rate.
• B. Crackles are heard in bases. The nurse encourages the client to cough forcefully.
• C. Wheezes are heard in central areas. The nurse administers an inhaled bronchodilator.
• D. Vesicular sounds are heard over the periphery. The nurse has the client breathe deeply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Wheezes are indicative of narrowed airways, and bronchodilators help to open the air passages, making option C the correct match. Wheezes are typically heard in the central or peripheral lung areas and are associated with conditions like asthma or COPD. Inhaled bronchodilators work by dilating the bronchioles, which helps alleviate wheezing and improve airflow. Therefore, administering an inhaled bronchodilator is the appropriate intervention in response to wheezes.

2. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (Select all that apply)

• A. I held the client's morning bronchodilator medication.
• B. The client is ready to go down to radiology for this examination.
• C. Physical therapy states the client can run on a treadmill.
• D. I advised the client not to smoke for 6 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Communication between the nurse and respiratory therapist is crucial before pulmonary function tests (PFTs). It is important to inform the respiratory therapist that the client is ready for the examination. The nurse should not administer bronchodilator medication before the test as it may affect the results, and the client should not smoke for 6 to 8 hours prior to the test to ensure accurate results. Additionally, PFTs do not involve running on a treadmill; instead, the client may be required to perform specific breathing maneuvers as instructed by the respiratory therapist.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for four clients on intravenous heparin therapy. Which lab value possibly indicates a serious side effect has occurred?

• A. Hemoglobin: 14.2 g/dL
• B. Platelet count: 82,000/µL
• C. RBC count: 4.8 x 10^6/µL
• D. WBC count: 8.7 x 10^3/µL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low platelet count, as seen in choice B, is concerning as it could indicate heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, a serious side effect of heparin therapy. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia can lead to an increased risk of blood clotting, potentially causing severe complications. Monitoring platelet counts is crucial during heparin therapy to promptly identify and manage this adverse effect.

4. When caring for a client with Alzheimer's disease, what is the most appropriate communication technique for a nurse to use?

• A. Providing detailed explanations
• B. Speaking in a loud and clear voice
• C. Using simple and direct statements
• D. Offering multiple choices to the client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When communicating with clients with Alzheimer's disease, using simple and direct statements is the most appropriate technique. This approach helps to minimize confusion, enhance understanding, and facilitate effective communication with individuals who may have difficulty processing complex information due to their condition.

5. A client tests positive for alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency and asks the nurse, What does this mean? How should the nurse respond?

• A. Your children may be at high risk for developing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
• B. I will arrange for a genetic counselor to discuss your condition.
• C. Your risk for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is higher, particularly if you smoke.
• D. This is a recessive gene that should not affect your health.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency is associated with a higher risk of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), especially if the individual smokes. This condition is caused by a recessive gene. Individuals with one allele typically produce enough AAT to prevent COPD unless they smoke. However, those with two alleles are at high risk for COPD even without exposure to smoke or other irritants. Being a carrier of AAT deficiency does not guarantee that one's children will develop the disease; it depends on the AAT levels of the partner. While involving a genetic counselor may be beneficial in the long run, the immediate concern of the client's question should be addressed first.

Similar Questions