ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam
1. After auscultating a client's breath sounds, the nurse is providing care. Which finding is correctly matched to the nurse's primary intervention?
- A. Hollow sounds are heard over the trachea. The nurse increases the oxygen flow rate.
- B. Crackles are heard in bases. The nurse encourages the client to cough forcefully.
- C. Wheezes are heard in central areas. The nurse administers an inhaled bronchodilator.
- D. Vesicular sounds are heard over the periphery. The nurse has the client breathe deeply.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Wheezes are indicative of narrowed airways, and bronchodilators help to open the air passages, making option C the correct match. Wheezes are typically heard in the central or peripheral lung areas and are associated with conditions like asthma or COPD. Inhaled bronchodilators work by dilating the bronchioles, which helps alleviate wheezing and improve airflow. Therefore, administering an inhaled bronchodilator is the appropriate intervention in response to wheezes.
2. A client in the intensive care unit is receiving teaching before removal of an endotracheal tube. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Rest in a side-lying position after the tube is removed.
- B. Use the incentive spirometer every 4 hours after the tube is removed.
- C. Avoid speaking for extended periods.
- D. Vital signs will be monitored by a nurse every 15 minutes in the first hour after the tube is removed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: It is essential to advise the client to avoid speaking for extended periods after the removal of the endotracheal tube to prevent strain on the vocal cords and allow the airway to recover. Speaking for prolonged periods can lead to irritation and potentially affect the healing process. The other options are also important post-extubation instructions, such as using the incentive spirometer to maintain lung function, positioning in a side-lying position for comfort, and frequent monitoring of vital signs to ensure the client's stability.
3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receives oxygen therapy. Which finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 91%
- B. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
- C. Client reports shortness of breath
- D. Use of accessory muscles
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute in a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy may indicate respiratory depression, necessitating immediate intervention. An oxygen saturation of 91%, client reports of shortness of breath, and use of accessory muscles are expected in COPD clients.
4. A client presents with shortness of breath, pain in the lung area, and a recent history of starting birth control pills and smoking. Vital signs include a heart rate of 110/min, respiratory rate of 40/min, and blood pressure of 140/80 mm Hg. Arterial blood gases reveal pH 7.50, PaCO2 29 mm Hg, PaO2 60 mm Hg, HCO3 20 mEq/L, and SaO2 86%. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Prepare for mechanical ventilation.
- B. Administer oxygen via face mask.
- C. Prepare to administer a sedative.
- D. Assess for indications of pulmonary embolism.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with a high respiratory rate, low PaO2, and low SaO2, the priority intervention is to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen via a face mask will help increase the oxygen supply to the client's lungs and tissues, addressing the hypoxemia. While mechanical ventilation may be necessary in severe cases, administering oxygen is the initial and most appropriate intervention to address the client's respiratory distress. Sedatives should not be given without ensuring adequate oxygenation. Assessing for pulmonary embolism is important but not the priority at this moment when the client is experiencing respiratory distress and hypoxemia.
5. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is receiving hemodialysis. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?
- A. Weight gain of 1 kg since the last dialysis session
- B. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg
- C. Potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L
- D. Hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is critically high and can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia is a common complication in clients with ESRD due to the kidneys' inability to excrete potassium effectively. High potassium levels can result in serious cardiac consequences such as arrhythmias, cardiac arrest, and death. Prompt action is necessary to prevent these severe complications.
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