ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam
1. After auscultating a client's breath sounds, the nurse is providing care. Which finding is correctly matched to the nurse's primary intervention?
- A. Hollow sounds are heard over the trachea. The nurse increases the oxygen flow rate.
- B. Crackles are heard in bases. The nurse encourages the client to cough forcefully.
- C. Wheezes are heard in central areas. The nurse administers an inhaled bronchodilator.
- D. Vesicular sounds are heard over the periphery. The nurse has the client breathe deeply.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Wheezes are indicative of narrowed airways, and bronchodilators help to open the air passages, making option C the correct match. Wheezes are typically heard in the central or peripheral lung areas and are associated with conditions like asthma or COPD. Inhaled bronchodilators work by dilating the bronchioles, which helps alleviate wheezing and improve airflow. Therefore, administering an inhaled bronchodilator is the appropriate intervention in response to wheezes.
2. Which action should the nurse take to reduce the risk of ventilator-associated pneumonia in a client with an endotracheal tube receiving mechanical ventilation?
- A. Position the head of the client's bed flat
- B. Turn the client every 4 hours
- C. Brush the client's teeth with a suction toothbrush every 12 hours
- D. Provide humidity by maintaining moisture within the ventilator tubing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) is a common complication in clients receiving mechanical ventilation. Oral hygiene is crucial in reducing the risk of VAP. Brushing the client's teeth with a suction toothbrush every 12 hours helps prevent bacterial colonization in the oral cavity, which can be aspirated into the lungs. Positioning the head of the bed flat can increase the risk of aspiration. Turning the client every 4 hours is important for preventing pressure ulcers but not directly related to reducing VAP. Providing humidity in the ventilator tubing helps maintain airway moisture but does not directly address the risk of VAP.
3. When prioritizing client care after receiving change-of-shift report, which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?
- A. A client who is scheduled for an abdominal x-ray and is awaiting transport
- B. A client who has a prescription for discharge
- C. A client who received oral pain medication 30 minutes ago
- D. A client who told an assistive personnel he is short of breath
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client expresses being short of breath, it may indicate a serious condition requiring immediate attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. This client should be seen first to assess the severity of the situation and initiate appropriate interventions. The other options, such as awaiting transport for an x-ray, having a prescription for discharge, or receiving oral pain medication 30 minutes ago, do not present immediate life-threatening concerns compared to a client experiencing shortness of breath.
4. A client takes atorvastatin (Lipitor), with laboratory results showing a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 33 mg/dL and creatinine of 2.8 mg/dL. What action by the nurse is best?
- A. Ask if the client eats grapefruit.
- B. Assess the client for dehydration.
- C. Facilitate admission to the hospital.
- D. Obtain a random urinalysis.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: There is a drug-food interaction between statins and grapefruit that can lead to acute kidney failure. The client has elevated renal laboratory results, indicating kidney involvement. The nurse should ask if the client consumes grapefruit or grapefruit juice. While dehydration can elevate BUN, the increase in creatinine is more specific for kidney injury.
5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding requires the nurse to take immediate action?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
- C. Client reports shortness of breath
- D. Client's respiratory rate decreases to 10 breaths per minute
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A decrease in the client's respiratory rate to 10 breaths per minute, while receiving oxygen therapy for COPD, is a concerning finding that may indicate carbon dioxide retention and respiratory depression. This situation requires immediate action to prevent further complications. An oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients on oxygen therapy. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and reports of shortness of breath are common in clients with COPD and may not necessitate immediate action unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
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