Nursing Elites

1. A client in an emergency department has a sucking chest wound resulting from a gunshot. The client has a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, a weak pulse rate of 118/min, and a respiratory rate of 40/min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Raise the foot of the bed to a 90° angle
• B. Remove the dressing to inspect the wound
• C. Prepare to insert a central line
• D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a sucking chest wound, the priority is to administer oxygen via nasal cannula to improve oxygenation. The client's blood pressure, weak pulse rate, and elevated respiratory rate indicate hypovolemic shock, so increasing oxygen supply is crucial. Raising the foot of the bed, removing the dressing, or preparing to insert a central line are not immediate actions needed for a client with a sucking chest wound and signs of shock.

2. While caring for a client using O2 in the hospital, what assessment finding indicates that goals for a priority diagnosis are being met?

• A. 100% of meals being eaten by the client
• B. Intact skin behind the ears
• C. The client understanding the need for oxygen
• D. Unchanged weight for the past 3 days

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is using oxygen, there is a risk for impaired skin integrity due to pressure from tubing. Intact skin behind the ears suggests that the client is not experiencing skin breakdown, meeting the goals for this diagnosis. The client's nutrition, understanding of oxygen therapy, and weight stability are important but do not directly relate to the priority diagnosis of skin integrity in this context.

3. When assessing a client with a pneumothorax and a chest tube, which finding should the nurse notify the provider about?

• A. Movement of the trachea toward the unaffected side
• B. Bubbling of the water in the water seal chamber with exhalation
• C. Crepitus in the area above and surrounding the insertion site
• D. Eyelets not visible

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The movement of the trachea toward the unaffected side is concerning as it can indicate a tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate intervention. The trachea should be midline, so any deviation should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and intervention.

4. A client just had a flexible bronchoscopy. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?

• A. Withhold food and liquids until the client's gag reflex returns.
• B. Irrigate the client's throat every 4 hours.
• C. Have the client refrain from talking for 24 hours.
• D. Suction the client's oropharynx frequently.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a flexible bronchoscopy, it is crucial to withhold food and liquids until the client's gag reflex returns to prevent aspiration. Irrigating the client's throat every 4 hours, having the client refrain from talking for 24 hours, and frequent suctioning of the oropharynx are not indicated post-bronchoscopy and may even pose risks to the client's recovery.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client immediately after the removal of the endotracheal tube. Which of the following findings should the provider report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Stridor
• B. Copious oral secretions
• C. Hoarseness
• D. Sore throat

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh respiratory sound that can indicate airway obstruction. It is a serious finding that requires immediate attention as it may lead to respiratory compromise. Copious oral secretions, hoarseness, and sore throat are common but expected findings after endotracheal tube removal and do not typically require urgent intervention.

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