Nursing Elites

1. A client in an emergency department has a sucking chest wound resulting from a gunshot. The client has a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, a weak pulse rate of 118/min, and a respiratory rate of 40/min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Raise the foot of the bed to a 90° angle
• B. Remove the dressing to inspect the wound
• C. Prepare to insert a central line
• D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a sucking chest wound, the priority is to administer oxygen via nasal cannula to improve oxygenation. The client's blood pressure, weak pulse rate, and elevated respiratory rate indicate hypovolemic shock, so increasing oxygen supply is crucial. Raising the foot of the bed, removing the dressing, or preparing to insert a central line are not immediate actions needed for a client with a sucking chest wound and signs of shock.

2. A client tests positive for alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency and asks the nurse, What does this mean? How should the nurse respond?

• A. Your children may be at high risk for developing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
• B. I will arrange for a genetic counselor to discuss your condition.
• C. Your risk for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is higher, particularly if you smoke.
• D. This is a recessive gene that should not affect your health.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency is associated with a higher risk of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), especially if the individual smokes. This condition is caused by a recessive gene. Individuals with one allele typically produce enough AAT to prevent COPD unless they smoke. However, those with two alleles are at high risk for COPD even without exposure to smoke or other irritants. Being a carrier of AAT deficiency does not guarantee that one's children will develop the disease; it depends on the AAT levels of the partner. While involving a genetic counselor may be beneficial in the long run, the immediate concern of the client's question should be addressed first.

3. When caring for a client with acute renal failure, which laboratory value is most important to monitor?

• A. Serum sodium
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Serum calcium
• D. Serum chloride

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In acute renal failure, monitoring serum potassium is crucial because impaired kidney function can lead to hyperkalemia, which can result in life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. Elevated potassium levels need close monitoring and prompt interventions to prevent serious complications.

4. A client with cirrhosis is experiencing ascites. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Increase protein intake.
• B. Limit fluid intake to 1500 mL/day.
• C. Consume a low-sodium diet.
• D. Take a daily multivitamin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a client with cirrhosis experiencing ascites, the nurse should instruct them to consume a low-sodium diet. This dietary modification helps reduce fluid retention and manage ascites by decreasing the amount of sodium in the body, which helps prevent fluid accumulation in the abdomen. Limiting sodium intake is crucial in managing ascites and preventing further complications in clients with cirrhosis.

5. Prior to a cardiac catheterization, what is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Ensure that the client has been NPO for 6 hours before the procedure.
• B. Administer pre-procedure medications as ordered.
• C. Verify that informed consent has been obtained.
• D. Assess the client for any allergies, especially to iodine or shellfish.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing the client for allergies, particularly to iodine or shellfish, is crucial before a cardiac catheterization because the contrast dye used during the procedure can lead to allergic reactions. Identifying any allergies beforehand allows the healthcare team to take necessary precautions to prevent potential adverse reactions and ensure the client's safety.

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