a nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has a sucking chest wound resulting from a gunshot the client has a blood pressure of 10
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Detailed Answer Key Medical Surgical

1. A client in an emergency department has a sucking chest wound resulting from a gunshot. The client has a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, a weak pulse rate of 118/min, and a respiratory rate of 40/min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a sucking chest wound, the priority is to administer oxygen via nasal cannula to improve oxygenation. The client's blood pressure, weak pulse rate, and elevated respiratory rate indicate hypovolemic shock, so increasing oxygen supply is crucial. Raising the foot of the bed, removing the dressing, or preparing to insert a central line are not immediate actions needed for a client with a sucking chest wound and signs of shock.

2. When performing tracheostomy care, which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a client with a tracheostomy, it is essential to ensure that the airway is maintained and secured at all times. Securing new tracheostomy ties before removing the old ones helps prevent accidental decannulation and ensures continuous airway patency. Aseptic technique is crucial to prevent infections but is not directly related to securing the tracheostomy ties. Cleaning the inner cannula with mild soap and water is important for maintaining hygiene but does not address the immediate need for securing the airway. Applying suction when inserting the catheter is not a standard practice during tracheostomy care.

3. A client is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective oxygen therapy should improve the client's ability to perform activities without dyspnea. This indicates that the oxygen therapy is adequately supporting the client's respiratory needs. An oxygen saturation of 92% may suggest the need for a higher flow rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is elevated, indicating potential respiratory distress. A productive cough does not necessarily indicate effective oxygen therapy, as it is a symptom of respiratory irritation or infection, not oxygenation status.

4. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Communication between the nurse and respiratory therapist is crucial before pulmonary function tests (PFTs). It is important to inform the respiratory therapist that the client is ready for the examination. The nurse should not administer bronchodilator medication before the test as it may affect the results, and the client should not smoke for 6 to 8 hours prior to the test to ensure accurate results. Additionally, PFTs do not involve running on a treadmill; instead, the client may be required to perform specific breathing maneuvers as instructed by the respiratory therapist.

5. During assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client with chronic bronchitis. Which of the following percussion sounds should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic bronchitis, the nurse or healthcare provider would expect to hear resonant sounds upon percussion. Resonance is the normal percussion sound heard over healthy lung tissue. The other options such as dullness, tympany, and flatness are associated with different conditions or abnormalities, not typically expected in chronic bronchitis.

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