a nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a total knee replacement the client reports pain of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10 which

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a total knee replacement. The client reports pain of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Administer ibuprofen 400 mg PO
B. Administer oxycodone 10 mg PO
C. Reposition the client to the unaffected side
D. Apply a cold compress to the affected knee

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the appropriate action for the nurse to take when a client reports severe postoperative pain of 8 out of 10 is to administer oxycodone 10 mg PO. Oxycodone is a potent analgesic that is more effective in managing severe pain compared to ibuprofen, making choice A incorrect. Repositioning the client to the unaffected side or applying a cold compress may provide some comfort but are not the priority interventions for severe postoperative pain, making choices C and D less appropriate.

2. What is the first action to take for a patient experiencing a seizure?

A. Administer anticonvulsant medication
B. Protect the patient's head
C. Insert an oral airway
D. Restrain the patient

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The first action a nurse should take for a patient experiencing a seizure is to protect the patient's head. This is crucial to prevent head injuries during the seizure. Administering anticonvulsant medication may be necessary but is not the first action. Inserting an oral airway may cause injury as the patient may bite down during a seizure. Restraint is not recommended as it can lead to further harm.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes the FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. The nurse should identify which of the following conditions as a possible cause of fetal bradycardia?

A. Maternal fever.
B. Fetal anemia.
C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
D. Chorioamnionitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates bradycardia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. This situation requires immediate intervention to address the underlying cause. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever, fetal anemia, and chorioamnionitis may have other effects on the fetus but are not primary causes of bradycardia in this context.

4. How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient with fluid overload?

A. Monitor daily weight
B. Check for edema
C. Monitor input and output
D. Monitor blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring daily weight is crucial in assessing fluid retention accurately in a patient with fluid overload. Changes in weight can indicate fluid accumulation or loss, providing valuable information for healthcare providers. Checking for edema (choice B) is important but may not always accurately reflect total body fluid status. Monitoring input and output (choice C) and blood pressure (choice D) are also essential aspects of patient assessment, but they may not directly reflect the extent of fluid overload as effectively as monitoring daily weight.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and is taking clozapine. Which finding should the healthcare provider identify as a contraindication to the administration of clozapine?

A. Heart rate 58/min.
B. Fasting blood glucose 100 mg/dL.
C. Hgb 14 g/dL.
D. WBC count 2,900/mm3.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: a low WBC count. Clozapine can suppress bone marrow function, leading to a decreased white blood cell count. This condition, known as agranulocytosis, increases the risk of severe infections. Monitoring WBC counts is essential during clozapine therapy. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and are not contraindications for administering clozapine.