a nurse is preparing to perform a follow up assessment on a client who takes chlorpromazine for the treatment of schizophrenia the nurse should expect
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A client who takes Chlorpromazine for the treatment of Schizophrenia is due for a follow-up assessment. The nurse should expect the greatest improvement in which of the following manifestations? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client takes a conventional antipsychotic medication like chlorpromazine, the greatest improvement is typically seen in positive symptoms such as disorganized speech. These medications are more effective in managing positive symptoms like disorganized speech rather than negative symptoms like impaired social interactions or hallucinations. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate improvement in disorganized speech as a positive response to chlorpromazine treatment.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Metformin is to take the medication with food. Taking Metformin with meals helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects and ensures better absorption. Choice B, to avoid foods high in potassium, is not directly related to Metformin. Choice C, taking the medication at bedtime, is not a standard instruction for Metformin. Choice D, taking the medication every other day, is incorrect as Metformin is typically taken daily as prescribed.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Spironolactone to a client. Which of the following laboratory results should the professional review before administering this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering Spironolactone, it is essential to monitor the client's serum potassium levels because Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Monitoring potassium levels helps to detect hyperkalemia, a potential adverse effect of the medication.

4. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about Terbutaline. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Terbutaline works by blocking beta2-adrenergic receptors, leading to uterine smooth muscle relaxation and stopping contractions. It is commonly used to delay preterm labor. Choice B is incorrect because Terbutaline is not used to prevent vaginal bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because Terbutaline's primary action is not related to promoting blood flow to the baby. Choice D is incorrect because Terbutaline does not increase prostaglandin production; instead, it works by blocking beta2-adrenergic receptors.

5. A client has a new prescription for Alteplase. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve blood clots. Patients receiving Alteplase are at risk for bleeding complications, including intracranial bleeding. Monitoring for changes in the level of consciousness is crucial as it can indicate early signs of bleeding, such as increased intracranial pressure. This rapid assessment allows for timely intervention and prevention of further complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Administering Alteplase within 4 hours of symptom onset is related to the time-sensitive nature of thrombolytic therapy for conditions like acute myocardial infarction or ischemic stroke. Reconstituting Alteplase with sterile saline is a correct step in preparing the medication for administration. Administering heparin concurrently with Alteplase is generally avoided due to the increased risk of bleeding.

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