Nursing Elites

1. A client who takes Chlorpromazine for the treatment of Schizophrenia is due for a follow-up assessment. The nurse should expect the greatest improvement in which of the following manifestations? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Disorganized speech.
• B. Bizarre behavior.
• C. Impaired social interactions.
• D. Hallucinations.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client takes a conventional antipsychotic medication like chlorpromazine, the greatest improvement is typically seen in positive symptoms such as disorganized speech. These medications are more effective in managing positive symptoms like disorganized speech rather than negative symptoms like impaired social interactions or hallucinations. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate improvement in disorganized speech as a positive response to chlorpromazine treatment.

2. In the management of nausea due to gastroparesis in a client with Diabetes, which of the following medications may be prescribed?

• A. Lubiprostone
• B. Metoclopramide
• C. Bisacodyl
• D. Loperamide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metoclopramide, as a dopamine antagonist, is commonly prescribed to manage nausea and improve gastric motility in clients with diabetic gastroparesis. By enhancing gastric emptying, it can help alleviate symptoms like bloating and nausea associated with gastroparesis. Choice A, Lubiprostone, is primarily used to treat chronic idiopathic constipation and irritable bowel syndrome with constipation, not nausea due to gastroparesis. Choice C, Bisacodyl, is a stimulant laxative used for the treatment of constipation and bowel preparation before procedures, not for nausea associated with gastroparesis. Choice D, Loperamide, is an antimotility agent used to manage diarrhea, not nausea or gastric motility issues seen in gastroparesis.

3. What is the antidote for Warfarin?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Vitamin K
• C. Glucagon
• D. Vitamin B

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct antidote for Warfarin is Vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Administering Vitamin K helps reverse its effects by replenishing these factors. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, Glucagon is used to treat severe low blood sugar, and Vitamin B is not the antidote for Warfarin.

4. A client with brain cancer and headaches is prescribed dexamethasone. What is the purpose of this adjuvant medication?

• A. To decrease inflammation and swelling
• B. To improve concentration
• C. To induce sedation
• D. To treat depression

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dexamethasone, a glucocorticoid, is indicated for clients with brain cancer to decrease inflammation and swelling. It helps reduce cerebral edema and relieve pressure caused by the tumor, ultimately alleviating headaches. The purpose of prescribing dexamethasone in this case is not to improve concentration (choice B), induce sedation (choice C), or treat depression (choice D). Methylphenidate, a stimulant, is used for conditions like ADHD, not for brain cancer. Hydroxyzine, an antihistamine, is primarily used for anxiety and itching, not for brain cancer. Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is used for conditions like depression and neuropathic pain, not specifically for brain cancer-related headaches.

5. When teaching a client with cancer who has a prescription for methotrexate, which supplement should the nurse instruct the client to take?

• A. Folic acid
• B. Magnesium
• C. Vitamin D
• D. Iron

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is folic acid. Methotrexate is a folic acid antagonist, so instructing the client to take folic acid helps reduce the risk of methotrexate toxicity by providing additional folic acid that the medication may deplete. Magnesium (choice B), Vitamin D (choice C), and Iron (choice D) are not the correct supplements to instruct the client to take with methotrexate.

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