ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Test Bank
1. A client who takes Chlorpromazine for the treatment of Schizophrenia is due for a follow-up assessment. The nurse should expect the greatest improvement in which of the following manifestations? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Disorganized speech.
- B. Bizarre behavior.
- C. Impaired social interactions.
- D. Hallucinations.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client takes a conventional antipsychotic medication like chlorpromazine, the greatest improvement is typically seen in positive symptoms such as disorganized speech. These medications are more effective in managing positive symptoms like disorganized speech rather than negative symptoms like impaired social interactions or hallucinations. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate improvement in disorganized speech as a positive response to chlorpromazine treatment.
2. A client has a new prescription for Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12) injections. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will need to take this medication for the rest of my life.
- B. I will stop taking the medication when my symptoms improve.
- C. I should take this medication with food.
- D. I will need to avoid green, leafy vegetables while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with pernicious anemia or other causes of vitamin B12 deficiency may need to take cyanocobalamin for life to prevent deficiency. It is a lifelong treatment in many cases to maintain adequate B12 levels. Choice B is incorrect because stopping the medication when symptoms improve may lead to a relapse of the deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as cyanocobalamin injections are usually administered on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to avoid green, leafy vegetables while taking cyanocobalamin; in fact, these vegetables are good dietary sources of vitamin B12.
3. A client is starting therapy with filgrastim, and a nurse is providing teaching on monitoring adverse effects. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Bone pain
- B. Constipation
- C. Tinnitus
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bone pain. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for bone pain since it is a common adverse effect of filgrastim. This occurs due to increased bone marrow activity stimulated by the medication.
4. A client has been prescribed Valsartan. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that can lead to hyperkalemia by inhibiting the action of aldosterone. Hyperkalemia is a potential adverse effect, making it essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client's potassium levels to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Incorrect Options Rationale: - Option B, Hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Valsartan. - Option C, Bradycardia, is not typically associated with Valsartan use. - Option D, Hypercalcemia, is not a known adverse effect of Valsartan; instead, Valsartan can lead to hyperkalemia.
5. A client has a new diagnosis of Fibromyalgia. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this client?
- A. Colchicine
- B. Hydroxychloroquine
- C. Auranofin
- D. Duloxetine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Duloxetine. Duloxetine is commonly used to treat fibromyalgia as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. It is also indicated for depression and diabetic peripheral neuropathy. Colchicine, Hydroxychloroquine, and Auranofin are not typically prescribed for fibromyalgia. Colchicine is primarily used to treat gout, Hydroxychloroquine for conditions like malaria and rheumatoid arthritis, and Auranofin for rheumatoid arthritis.
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