a nurse is preparing to perform a follow up assessment on a client who takes chlorpromazine for the treatment of schizophrenia the nurse should expect
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A client who takes Chlorpromazine for the treatment of Schizophrenia is due for a follow-up assessment. The nurse should expect the greatest improvement in which of the following manifestations? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client takes a conventional antipsychotic medication like chlorpromazine, the greatest improvement is typically seen in positive symptoms such as disorganized speech. These medications are more effective in managing positive symptoms like disorganized speech rather than negative symptoms like impaired social interactions or hallucinations. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate improvement in disorganized speech as a positive response to chlorpromazine treatment.

2. A client has a new prescription for Simvastatin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Grapefruit can increase the levels of simvastatin in the blood, leading to an increased risk of serious side effects, including muscle pain or damage. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to avoid consuming grapefruit while taking this medication to prevent potential complications.

3. A client is taking Epoetin Alfa for anemia. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the hematocrit level to evaluate the effectiveness of Epoetin Alfa therapy since it stimulates red blood cell production. Hematocrit reflects the volume of red blood cells in the blood, providing a direct measure of the therapy's impact on increasing red blood cell mass and addressing anemia. Monitoring white blood cell count and platelet count is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of Epoetin Alfa therapy for anemia. Serum potassium level monitoring may be necessary due to potential side effects of the medication, but it is not the primary indicator of therapy effectiveness in treating anemia.

4. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Edema. Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely observe the client's lower extremities for any signs of swelling, which could indicate the development of edema. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because Nifedipine is used to treat hypertension, not cause it. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is unrelated to Nifedipine's common adverse effects. Choice D, Bradycardia, is not typically associated with Nifedipine use.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the provider monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the awareness of bladder fullness, leading to urinary retention. This complication can result in significant discomfort and potential urinary tract issues if not promptly addressed. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) is a common side effect of opioids but is not a specific complication related to urinary retention. Hypertension is not typically associated with opioid agonists and is more commonly seen with opioid antagonists. An irritating cough is not a known complication of opioid agonists and is not directly related to the effect opioids have on the urinary system.

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