a nurse is teaching a client who has schizophrenia strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of fluphenazine which of the following should the
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pharmacology

1. A client with schizophrenia is being taught strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of Fluphenazine. Which of the following should the nurse suggest to the client to minimize anticholinergic effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chewing sugarless gum is an effective strategy to manage dry mouth, a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. By stimulating saliva production, sugarless gum helps to moisten the mouth and alleviate the discomfort associated with dryness. This intervention can improve the client's oral health and overall comfort while taking the medication. The other options are not directly related to alleviating anticholinergic effects. Taking the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia does not address anticholinergic effects specifically. Using cooling measures to decrease fever is not relevant to managing dry mouth caused by anticholinergic effects. Taking an antacid to relieve nausea is unrelated to managing dry mouth, which is the focus of anticholinergic effects.

2. Which medication is a beta blocker?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta blocker commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and angina by blocking the action of adrenaline on the heart. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker, Captopril is an ACE inhibitor, and Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication. Therefore, the correct answer is Atenolol (Tenormin) as it belongs to the beta blocker class of medications.

3. A client in an acute care facility is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. When IV nitroprusside is administered at high dosages, it can lead to thiocyanate toxicity, resulting in mental status changes such as delirium. Monitoring thiocyanate levels during therapy is crucial to ensure they remain below 10 mg/dL to prevent this adverse reaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because nitroprusside does not typically cause intestinal ileus, neutropenia, or hyperthermia as adverse reactions.

4. A client with Addison's disease is being admitted for a total hip arthroplasty. The client takes hydrocortisone for Addison's disease. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's priority in this situation is to administer a supplemental dose of hydrocortisone. Clients with Addison's disease taking hydrocortisone are at risk of acute adrenal insufficiency during times of stress such as surgery. Administering supplemental doses of hydrocortisone helps prevent acute adrenal insufficiency (adrenal crisis) in these situations, making it the priority action to ensure the client's safety. Instructing the client about coughing and deep breathing is important postoperatively but not the priority at this time. Collecting additional information about the client's history of Addison's disease is important but not the priority action before surgery. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the priority in this situation.

5. While collecting data from a client taking Gemfibrozil, a nurse should identify which of the following assessment findings as an adverse reaction to the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Jaundice is an adverse reaction that the nurse should identify when assessing a client taking Gemfibrozil. It is associated with liver impairment, which can be a side effect of this medication. Mental status changes and tremors are not typically associated with Gemfibrozil use. Pneumonia is not a common adverse reaction to this medication, and its occurrence is not directly linked to Gemfibrozil use.

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