ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology
1. A client with schizophrenia is being taught strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of Fluphenazine. Which of the following should the nurse suggest to the client to minimize anticholinergic effects?
- A. Take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
- B. Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth.
- C. Use cooling measures to decrease fever.
- D. Take an antacid to relieve nausea.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Chewing sugarless gum is an effective strategy to manage dry mouth, a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. By stimulating saliva production, sugarless gum helps to moisten the mouth and alleviate the discomfort associated with dryness. This intervention can improve the client's oral health and overall comfort while taking the medication. The other options are not directly related to alleviating anticholinergic effects. Taking the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia does not address anticholinergic effects specifically. Using cooling measures to decrease fever is not relevant to managing dry mouth caused by anticholinergic effects. Taking an antacid to relieve nausea is unrelated to managing dry mouth, which is the focus of anticholinergic effects.
2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical history of a client who has a new prescription for Metformin to treat type 2 diabetes. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Hemoglobin A1C of 7.5%
- B. Creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dL
- C. BUN level of 18 mg/dL
- D. Liver function tests showing AST of 50 units/L
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Elevated AST levels in liver function tests should be reported to the provider when a client is prescribed Metformin due to the potential risk of hepatotoxicity associated with the medication. Elevated Hemoglobin A1C (choice A), Creatinine level within normal range (choice B), and BUN level within normal range (choice C) are not directly concerning when initiating Metformin therapy.
3. What is the classification of Ondansetron?
- A. Antihypertensive
- B. Antiarrhythmic
- C. Antiemetic
- D. Antiulcer agent
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ondansetron is classified as an antiemetic. It is commonly used to prevent nausea and vomiting, especially in patients undergoing chemotherapy or surgery. Choice A, Antihypertensive, is incorrect as Ondansetron is not used to treat high blood pressure. Choice B, Antiarrhythmic, is incorrect as Ondansetron is not used to manage heart rhythm abnormalities. Choice D, Antiulcer agent, is incorrect as Ondansetron is not primarily indicated for treating ulcers.
4. When starting amitriptyline, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Urinary retention
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Dry cough
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client starts taking amitriptyline, an important adverse effect to monitor for is urinary retention. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that can cause anticholinergic effects, including urinary retention. It is crucial to educate the client on recognizing and reporting this adverse effect to their healthcare provider. Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of amitriptyline and is more associated with other medications. Bradycardia is a possible adverse effect of amitriptyline, but urinary retention is a more common and significant concern. Dry cough is not a typical adverse effect of amitriptyline.
5. A client has a new prescription for Zolpidem. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Notify the provider if you plan to become pregnant.
- B. Take the medication 1 hr before you plan to go to sleep.
- C. Allow at least 6 hr for sleep when taking Zolpidem.
- D. To increase the effectiveness of Zolpidem, take it with a bedtime snack.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Zolpidem is classified under Pregnancy Risk Category C. It is essential for the client to inform the provider if she plans to become pregnant as Zolpidem use during pregnancy may pose risks to the fetus. This precaution allows for appropriate assessment and possible adjustments to the treatment plan to ensure the safety of both the client and the developing baby. Choice B is incorrect because Zolpidem is usually taken immediately before bedtime, not 1 hour before. Choice C is incorrect as Zolpidem is known for its quick onset of action, and the client does not need to allocate a specific amount of time for sleep. Choice D is incorrect as taking Zolpidem with food, especially a bedtime snack, may delay its onset of action.
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