a nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin iv to a client which of the following actions should the nurse take
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ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin IV to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering vancomycin IV is to assess the IV site for infiltration during administration. Vancomycin is known to cause tissue damage if it infiltrates, making close monitoring crucial. Administering the medication over 30 minutes (Choice A) is a common practice but not the priority in preventing infiltration. Monitoring for a decrease in blood pressure (Choice B) is not directly related to vancomycin administration. Premedicating with an antiemetic (Choice D) is not typically required for vancomycin administration.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has COPD and is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dyspnea in a client with COPD receiving oxygen should be reported as it may indicate worsening respiratory status. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the expected range for a client receiving oxygen therapy and does not require immediate reporting. A productive cough with clear sputum is a common symptom in clients with COPD and does not necessarily warrant urgent reporting. A respiratory rate of 22/min is also within normal limits and does not raise immediate concerns in this scenario.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to reduce the risk of aspiration?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action to reduce the risk of aspiration in clients receiving enteral feedings is to elevate the head of the bed during feedings. This position helps prevent regurgitation and aspiration of the feeding. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) increases the risk of aspiration as it promotes reflux. Administering feedings over 10 minutes (Choice B) does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Placing the client in a lateral position after feedings (Choice D) does not address the risk of aspiration during the feeding process.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a hydrocolloid dressing. For a stage 2 pressure injury, maintaining a moist environment is crucial for healing. Hydrocolloid dressings help achieve this by promoting autolytic debridement and creating a barrier against bacteria while allowing the wound to heal. Applying a dry dressing (Choice A) may not provide the necessary moisture for healing. Cleansing the wound with normal saline (Choice B) is essential, but a hydrocolloid dressing is more specific for promoting healing in this case. Performing debridement as needed (Choice C) is not typically indicated for stage 2 pressure injuries, as they involve partial-thickness skin loss without slough or eschar.

5. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD is to avoid eating spicy foods. Spicy foods can trigger GERD symptoms by irritating the esophagus and increasing acid reflux. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Eating three large meals each day can exacerbate GERD symptoms by putting pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter, lying down after meals can worsen reflux due to gravity, and increasing dairy product intake may lead to higher fat consumption, which can also trigger GERD symptoms.

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