ATI RN
Proctored Pharmacology ATI
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Spironolactone to a client. Which of the following laboratory results should the professional review before administering this medication?
- A. Serum potassium.
- B. Serum sodium.
- C. Serum chloride.
- D. Serum calcium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When administering Spironolactone, it is essential to monitor the client's serum potassium levels because Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Monitoring potassium levels helps to detect hyperkalemia, a potential adverse effect of the medication.
2. The client with angina is being discharged to home. The nurse is instructing the client on dietary changes. What should be included in this teaching?
- A. Decrease salt and fat intake and limit alcohol intake.
- B. There are no dietary restrictions for a person diagnosed with angina.
- C. Limit smoking and increase protein and sugar intake.
- D. Increase fruits, vegetables, and foods high in cholesterol.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease salt and fat intake and limit alcohol intake. These dietary changes can help manage angina by reducing the workload on the heart and preventing further plaque buildup in the arteries. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as dietary restrictions for angina typically involve reducing salt, fat, and alcohol intake, rather than increasing sugar or cholesterol intake.
3. What is the primary use of lithium?
- A. Lower blood glucose
- B. Slow the heart rate
- C. Stabilize mood
- D. Heal ulcers
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stabilize mood. Lithium is primarily used to stabilize mood, especially in conditions like bipolar disorder. It helps in reducing the frequency and severity of manic episodes, making it an essential medication for mood stabilization. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as lithium is not used to lower blood glucose, slow the heart rate, or heal ulcers.
4. Which of the following is not a side effect of Sympathoplegics (Clonidine)?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Difficulty breathing
- C. Dry oral cavity
- D. Lethargic behavior
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clonidine, a Sympathoplegic, typically causes hypotension rather than hypertension. The other side effects associated with Clonidine include dry oral cavity, lethargic behavior, and difficulty breathing, making them incorrect choices in this context.
5. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Edema
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for swelling in the lower extremities, as it indicates the onset of edema. Hypertension is typically treated with Nifedipine and is not an adverse effect of the medication. Hyperglycemia and bradycardia are not commonly associated with Nifedipine use. Therefore, the correct adverse effect to monitor for when a client is prescribed Nifedipine is edema.
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