ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1
1. A nurse is preparing to administer morphine sulfate 2 mg IV bolus. Available is morphine sulfate 10 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?
- A. 0.2 mL
- B. 0.4 mL
- C. 0.6 mL
- D. 0.8 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should administer 0.2 mL of morphine sulfate. To calculate this, divide the desired dose (2 mg) by the concentration of the available solution (10 mg/mL). 2 mg / 10 mg/mL = 0.2 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.2 mL of morphine sulfate. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided concentration and desired dose.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with diabetes and a new prescription for 14 units of regular insulin and 28 units of NPH insulin subcutaneously at breakfast daily. What is the total number of units of insulin that the nurse should prepare in the insulin syringe?
- A. 14 units
- B. 28 units
- C. 32 units
- D. 42 units
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should combine both orders of insulin in the same syringe. To prepare the correct dose, the nurse should withdraw the regular insulin first (14 units) and then the NPH insulin (28 units), totaling 42 units. This combination ensures the client receives the prescribed doses of both types of insulin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the nurse needs to prepare and administer both types of insulin as prescribed, resulting in a total of 42 units in the syringe.
3. A healthcare provider has just administered a wrong medication to a client. Which of the following actions should the provider take next?
- A. No action is needed
- B. Report error to the provider
- C. Complete an institutional incident report
- D. Inform the client that the wrong medication was given
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario where a wrong medication has been administered, it is crucial for the healthcare provider to report the error to the provider. This action is essential to ensure that the provider is informed promptly, corrective measures are taken, and the client's well-being is safeguarded. Choice A is incorrect as taking no action could lead to serious consequences and compromise patient safety. Choice C, while important, should come after reporting the error to the provider. Choice D is not the immediate priority as the provider should first focus on addressing the error internally.
4. When administering amlodipine to a client with hypertension, what adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Constipation
- B. Facial flushing
- C. Hypotension
- D. Jaundice
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Hypotension. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly used to treat hypertension. One of the main adverse effects of amlodipine is hypotension, leading to low blood pressure. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of hypotension such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because constipation, facial flushing, and jaundice are not typically associated with amlodipine administration.
5. A 45-year-old client is taking methylprednisolone. What pharmacologic action should the nurse expect with this therapy?
- A. Suppression of beta2 receptors
- B. Suppression of airway mucus production
- C. Fortification of bones
- D. Suppression of candidiasis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Suppression of airway mucus production. Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone are known to suppress airway mucus production. This action helps in reducing inflammation and swelling in the airways, making breathing easier for individuals with conditions like asthma or COPD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Suppression of beta2 receptors is more related to beta-blockers, fortification of bones is associated with medications like bisphosphonates, and suppression of candidiasis is not a typical pharmacologic action of methylprednisolone.
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