Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer morphine sulfate 2 mg IV bolus. Available is morphine sulfate 10 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

• A. 0.2 mL
• B. 0.4 mL
• C. 0.6 mL
• D. 0.8 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should administer 0.2 mL of morphine sulfate. To calculate this, divide the desired dose (2 mg) by the concentration of the available solution (10 mg/mL). 2 mg / 10 mg/mL = 0.2 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.2 mL of morphine sulfate. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided concentration and desired dose.

2. A nurse is providing client education regarding lithium therapy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take with food to decrease nausea
• B. Avoid excessive intake of caffeinated beverages
• C. Monitor for signs of dehydration
• D. Restrict salt intake to prevent water retention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid excessive intake of caffeinated beverages as they can interfere with lithium levels. Option A is incorrect as lithium is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach. Option C is not directly related to lithium therapy. Option D is not a typical instruction for lithium therapy.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed warfarin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse review to evaluate the therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. aPTT
• B. INR
• C. Serum glucose
• D. Bilirubin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: INR. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is the most reliable test for evaluating the therapeutic effects of warfarin therapy. INR measures the clotting ability of the blood and helps determine if the dosage of warfarin is within the therapeutic range. Choice A, aPTT, is not typically used to monitor the effects of warfarin. Choice C, Serum glucose, and choice D, Bilirubin, are not relevant to monitoring the therapeutic effect of warfarin.

4. A client has been prescribed lisinopril. Which of the following medication interactions should the nurse instruct this client about?

• A. Potassium supplements
• B. Ciprofloxacin
• C. Escitalopram
• D. Magnesium supplements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium supplements. Clients taking lisinopril should avoid potassium supplements and potassium-sparing diuretics due to the risk of hyperkalemia. This interaction can lead to dangerously high levels of potassium in the blood, which can be harmful. Choice B, Ciprofloxacin, is not typically associated with a significant interaction with lisinopril. Choice C, Escitalopram, is an antidepressant and does not have a known significant interaction with lisinopril regarding potassium levels. Choice D, Magnesium supplements, are generally safe to take with lisinopril and do not pose a significant risk of hyperkalemia.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. At what angle should the nurse administer the medication using the ventrogluteal site?

• A. a 45-degree angle
• B. a 60-degree angle
• C. a 75-degree angle
• D. a 90-degree angle

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Intramuscular injections in the ventrogluteal site should be administered at a 90-degree angle. This angle ensures that the medication reaches the muscle tissue effectively. Angles less than 90 degrees can cause subcutaneous injection instead of intramuscular, leading to slower absorption of the medication. Angles greater than 90 degrees risk hitting bone or nerves, causing unnecessary pain or injury. Therefore, the correct angle for administering intramuscular injections in the ventrogluteal site is 90 degrees.

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