ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1
1. Disulfiram is taken by a client daily for abstinence maintenance. What is an adverse effect of this therapy?
- A. Hepatotoxicity
- B. Wernicke's aphasia
- C. Suicidal ideations
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hepatotoxicity. Disulfiram is known to cause hepatotoxicity as a severe adverse effect. This occurs due to the inhibition of aldehyde dehydrogenase, leading to the accumulation of acetaldehyde when alcohol is consumed. Wernicke's aphasia (Choice B) is a language disorder unrelated to disulfiram therapy. Suicidal ideations (Choice C) may be associated with certain medications, but it is not a common adverse effect of disulfiram. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of disulfiram.
2. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed enoxaparin for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis. Which of the following client assessments requires immediate intervention?
- A. Platelet count of 95,000/mm³
- B. Blood pressure of 145/90 mmHg
- C. Heart rate of 95 beats per minute
- D. Pain at the injection site
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A platelet count of 95,000/mm³ requires immediate intervention as it is low and increases the risk of bleeding, which is a potential complication of enoxaparin therapy. Low platelet counts can predispose the patient to hemorrhage, and administering anticoagulants like enoxaparin in such cases can further increase the bleeding risk. Monitoring platelet counts is crucial during anticoagulant therapy to prevent serious bleeding complications. The other options do not pose immediate risks related to enoxaparin therapy. A slightly elevated blood pressure, a heart rate of 95 beats per minute, and pain at the injection site are common findings that may not warrant immediate intervention in this context.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medication class benzodiazepines. The nurse would use caution when administering benzodiazepines to which of the below clients?
- A. A client with glaucoma
- B. A client with renal failure
- C. A client with hypertension
- D. A client with insomnia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Benzodiazepines should be used cautiously in clients with glaucoma because these medications can increase intraocular pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because renal failure, hypertension, and insomnia are not contraindications for administering benzodiazepines.
4. A nurse is providing client education regarding lithium therapy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take with food to decrease nausea
- B. Avoid excessive intake of caffeinated beverages
- C. Monitor for signs of dehydration
- D. Restrict salt intake to prevent water retention
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid excessive intake of caffeinated beverages as they can interfere with lithium levels. Option A is incorrect as lithium is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach. Option C is not directly related to lithium therapy. Option D is not a typical instruction for lithium therapy.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide to a client. Which of the following findings indicates the client may be at risk for an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Increased urine output
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia, which is a common adverse effect. Hypokalemia can result in serious complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are not directly associated with the adverse effects of furosemide. Hypertension is a condition that furosemide is often used to treat, increased urine output is an expected effect of furosemide, and hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of this medication.
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