a nurse is planning to administer morphine iv to a client who is postoperative which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A healthcare provider plans to administer Morphine IV to a postoperative client. Which of the following actions should the provider take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the provider is to withhold morphine if the client's respiratory rate is 12/min or less. Respiratory depression is a serious side effect of morphine and other opioids. Withholding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is essential to prevent further respiratory compromise in the client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because monitoring for seizures and confusion, protecting the client's skin from severe diarrhea, and administering morphine via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less are not the primary actions to ensure client safety when administering morphine IV. Respiratory status is crucial due to the risk of respiratory depression associated with opioid administration.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Haloperidol 2 mg PO every 12 hr. The available medication is haloperidol 1 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets needed, divide the desired dose by the dose per tablet. In this case, (2 mg / 1 mg/tablet) = 2 tablets required to administer the correct dosage of Haloperidol.

3. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The corrected answer is B: aPTT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory value used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. The aPTT should be maintained at 1.5 to 2 times the normal level to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. Monitoring aPTT helps healthcare providers adjust heparin doses to achieve the desired anticoagulant effects and prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. Choice A, PT (prothrombin time), is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Choice C, INR (international normalized ratio), is also used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D, platelet count, is important for assessing the risk of bleeding, but it does not directly monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

4. A client is starting a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when starting furosemide is to weigh yourself daily. Daily weighing helps monitor for fluid loss or retention, which is crucial when taking a diuretic like furosemide. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because although monitoring sodium intake and potassium levels are important when taking furosemide, the most immediate and direct way to assess the medication's effectiveness and the body's response is through daily weight monitoring.

5. Which medication is used as a bronchodilator?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Albuterol is the correct answer. It is a medication commonly used as a bronchodilator to treat conditions such as asthma. Albuterol works by relaxing the muscles in the airways, allowing better airflow and making breathing easier for individuals with respiratory conditions. Warfarin (Choice A) is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots, Lovastatin (Choice B) is a medication used to lower cholesterol levels, and Valproate (Choice D) is used to treat seizures and bipolar disorder. These medications are not bronchodilators and are used for different medical conditions.

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